A constant direct electric current is passed through a dilute aqueous solution of sodium sulfate, \ceNa2SO4(aq) , using inert platinum electrodes. Gases are evolved at both electrodes.
The graph shows the volume of each gas collected over time at constant temperature and pressure.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Gas 1 is produced at the cathode (negative electrode).
2. In the external circuit, electrons flow away from the electrode producing Gas 2 towards the electrode producing Gas 1.
3. As the electrolysis proceeds, the concentration of \ceNa2SO4 in the solution decreases.
A.
none of them
B.
1 only
C.
2 only
D.
3 only
E.
1 and 2 only
F.
1 and 3 only
G.
2 and 3 only
H.
1, 2 and 3
Answer and solution
Answer: E
During the electrolysis of dilute \ceNa2SO4(aq) :
- At the cathode (negative electrode), water is reduced in preference to \ceNa+ ions: \ce2H2O(l)+2e−−>H2(g)+2OH−(aq) - At the anode (positive electrode), water is oxidised in preference to \ceSO42− ions: \ce2H2O(l)−>O2(g)+4H+(aq)+4e− Overall reaction: \ce2H2O(l)−>2H2(g)+O2(g) .
For every 4 mol of electrons transferred, 2 mol of \ceH2(g) and 1 mol of \ceO2(g) are produced. According to Avogadro's law, the volume of \ceH2 collected is twice the volume of \ceO2 at any given time.
From the graph, the rate of production of Gas 1 is double that of Gas 2. Therefore, Gas 1 is \ceH2 and Gas 2 is \ceO2 .
- Statement 1 is correct:\ceH2 (Gas 1) is produced at the cathode (negative electrode). - Statement 2 is correct: Oxidation occurs at the anode (where Gas 2 is produced), releasing electrons. Reduction occurs at the cathode (where Gas 1 is produced), accepting electrons. In the external circuit, electrons flow from the anode (producing Gas 2) to the cathode (producing Gas 1). - Statement 3 is incorrect: Only water is decomposed and removed from the solution as gases. The amount of \ceNa2SO4 remains constant while the volume of water decreases, so the concentration of \ceNa2SO4 in the solution increases.
Thus, statements 1 and 2 only are correct.
▸Question 2
A 200 cm3 sample of dry air is passed repeatedly over excess heated copper until no further reaction occurs. Assume dry air contains 20.95% oxygen by volume and that only oxygen reacts with the copper.
What volume of gas remains, measured under the same conditions?
A.
42.0 cm3
B.
158 cm3
C.
160 cm3
D.
179 cm3
E.
200 cm3
Answer and solution
Answer: B
Oxygen occupies 0.2095×200=41.9 cm3 , so 200−41.9=158.1 cm3 remains. The closest option is 158 cm3 .
▸Question 3
A student carried out a two-dimensional thin-layer chromatography experiment to separate a mixture containing five organic compounds: V , W , X , Y , and Z .
A spot of the mixture was applied at the origin (0,0) . The plate was developed in Solvent 1 until the solvent front reached 12.0 cm along the vertical axis. The plate was dried, rotated by 90∘ , and developed in Solvent 2 until the solvent front reached 15.0 cm along the horizontal axis.
The final positions of the five compounds are shown on the chromatogram below.
Which of the following statements is correct?
A.
Developing the mixture using Solvent 1 alone would resolve all five compounds into separate spots.
B.
Developing the mixture using Solvent 2 alone would resolve all five compounds into separate spots.
C.
Compound X has the same Rf value in Solvent 1 as it has in Solvent 2.
D.
Compound Z has a greater Rf value in Solvent 1 than in Solvent 2.
E.
The Rf value of compound Y is 0.70 in Solvent 1 and 0.40 in Solvent 2.
Answer and solution
Answer: C
The retention factor Rf is defined as: Rf=distance moved by solvent frontdistance moved by compound For Solvent 1 (vertical axis), the solvent front is at 12.0 cm . For Solvent 2 (horizontal axis), the solvent front is at 15.0 cm .
Let us calculate the Rf values for compound X : - In Solvent 1: Rf,1=12.0 cm4.8 cm=0.40 - In Solvent 2: Rf,2=15.0 cm6.0 cm=0.40 Both Rf values are equal to 0.40 , making statement C correct.
Evaluating the other options: - A is incorrect: In Solvent 1 alone, V and W both travel 9.0 cm , while X and Y both travel 4.8 cm . Only 3 distinct spots would be observed. - B is incorrect: In Solvent 2 alone, W and X both travel 6.0 cm , giving only 4 distinct spots. - D is incorrect: For Z , Rf,1=12.02.4=0.20 and Rf,2=15.012.0=0.80 , so Rf,1<Rf,2 . - E is incorrect: For Y , Rf,1=12.04.8=0.40 and Rf,2=15.010.5=0.70 (the values in the statement are inverted).
▸Question 4
The alkene shown below reacts with hydrogen bromide, \ceHBr , in an addition reaction:
Which of the following products is/are formed in this reaction?
The starting material is 3-methylpent-2-ene, \ceCH3−CH=C(CH3)−CH2−CH3 .
In an electrophilic addition reaction, \ceHBr adds across the carbon–carbon double bond between C2 and C3:
- If \ceH+ adds to C2 and \ceBr− adds to C3 (via the more stable tertiary carbocation), the product is 3-bromo-3-methylpentane: \ceCH3CH2CBr(CH3)CH2CH3 (Product 1, major product). - If \ceH+ adds to C3 and \ceBr− adds to C2 (via the secondary carbocation), the product is 2-bromo-3-methylpentane: \ceCH3CH2CH(CH3)CHBrCH3 (Product 2, minor product).
Product 3 (1-bromo-3-methylpentane, \ceCH3CH2CH(CH3)CH2CH2Br ) requires bromine to attach to C1, which cannot happen because the double bond is between C2 and C3.
Therefore, only products 1 and 2 are formed.
▸Question 5
Element \ceX has atomic number 4 . It reacts with chlorine to form a binary compound. Which of the following options correctly identifies the formula of this compound and describes its structure in the solid state?
A.
\ceXCl2 , ionic lattice
B.
\ceXCl2 , simple molecular
C.
\ceXCl2 , polymeric chains
D.
\ceXCl4 , simple molecular
E.
\ceXCl , ionic lattice
Answer and solution
Answer: C
1. Identify the element: An atomic number of 4 corresponds to the electron configuration 1s22s2 . This places element \ceX (Beryllium) in Group 2.
2. Determine the formula: Group 2 elements have 2 valence electrons and form ions/compounds with a valency of 2 . Reacting with chlorine (valency 1 ) gives the formula \ceXCl2 .
3. Determine the structure: Although Group 2 chlorides are typically ionic, element \ceX is at the top of the group. The \ceX2+ ion is very small with a high charge density, making it highly polarising. This results in bonds with significant covalent character.
4. Reason about polymerization: As a simple monomer, \ceXCl2 would be linear with only 4 electrons in the valence shell of \ceX (electron deficient). To resolve this in the solid state, the molecules polymerise: chlorine atoms donate lone pairs to form coordinate (dative) bonds with adjacent \ceX atoms, creating polymeric chains.
▸Question 6
A pure solid is heated until it melts completely. Which of the following statements about its particles during melting is/are correct?
1. The particles remain particles of the same substance. 2. Their arrangement becomes less ordered and they become able to move past one another. 3. They become widely separated from one another as in a gas.
A.
none of them
B.
1 only
C.
2 only
D.
3 only
E.
1 and 2 only
F.
1 and 3 only
G.
2 and 3 only
H.
1, 2 and 3
Answer and solution
Answer: E
Melting changes particle arrangement and freedom of movement, not chemical identity. Particles in a liquid remain close together, so statement 3 is incorrect.
▸Question 7
Concentrated aqueous solutions of the five ionic compounds listed below are electrolysed using inert carbon electrodes.
Which compound produces the elemental metal at the cathode and the elemental halogen at the anode?
A.
NaCl
B.
MgBr2
C.
AgF
D.
CuCl2
E.
KI
Answer and solution
Answer: D
We must evaluate the products at both electrodes based on electrode potentials and concentration.
At the cathode (reduction): Species present are the metal ion ( Mn+ ) and water. - Metals more reactive than hydrogen (e.g., Na, Mg, K) are not deposited from aqueous solution; water is reduced to hydrogen gas ( 2H2O+2e−→H2+2OH− ). - Metals less reactive than hydrogen (e.g., Cu, Ag) are deposited as the metal ( Mn++ne−→M ). - Therefore, only AgF and CuCl2 can produce the metal.
At the anode (oxidation): Species present are the halide ion ( X− ) and water. - For concentrated solutions of Cl− , Br− , and I− , the halogen is produced ( 2X−→X2+2e− ). Although oxidation of water is often thermodynamically favoured, the high overpotential for oxygen evolution favours the halogen. - For F− , the oxidation potential is extremely high (standard potential +2.87 V). It is not energetically feasible to oxidise F− in the presence of water; water is oxidised to oxygen ( 2H2O→O2+4H++4e− ). - Therefore, AgF produces oxygen, not fluorine.
Conclusion: - AgF produces Ag and O2 . - CuCl2 produces Cu and Cl2 .
Only CuCl2 produces both the metal and the halogen.
▸Question 8
The graph shows the first eight successive ionisation energies ( IE ) of an element \ceQ , plotted as log10(IE/kJ mol−1) against the number of electrons removed. Element \ceQ belongs to Period 3 of the Periodic Table.
Which row in the table correctly identifies the Group of element \ceQ , the formula of its stable chloride, and the total number of unpaired electrons in a ground-state neutral atom of \ceQ ?
| | Group | Formula of chloride | Number of unpaired electrons | |---|---|---|---| | A | 13 | \ceQCl3 | 1 | | B | 13 | \ceQCl3 | 3 | | C | 14 | \ceQCl4 | 0 | | D | 14 | \ceQCl4 | 2 | | E | 14 | \ceQCl4 | 4 | | F | 15 | \ceQCl5 | 1 | | G | 15 | \ceQCl5 | 3 | | H | 15 | \ceQCl3 | 5 |
Group: 13; Formula of chloride: \ceQCl3 ; Number of unpaired electrons: 1
B.
Group: 13; Formula of chloride: \ceQCl3 ; Number of unpaired electrons: 3
C.
Group: 14; Formula of chloride: \ceQCl4 ; Number of unpaired electrons: 0
D.
Group: 14; Formula of chloride: \ceQCl4 ; Number of unpaired electrons: 2
E.
Group: 14; Formula of chloride: \ceQCl4 ; Number of unpaired electrons: 4
F.
Group: 15; Formula of chloride: \ceQCl5 ; Number of unpaired electrons: 1
G.
Group: 15; Formula of chloride: \ceQCl5 ; Number of unpaired electrons: 3
H.
Group: 15; Formula of chloride: \ceQCl3 ; Number of unpaired electrons: 5
Answer and solution
Answer: D
1. **Determine the Group of element \ceQ :** Looking at the graph of log10(IE) against the number of electrons removed, the values increase gradually for the first 4 electrons (from ≈2.90 to ≈3.64 ). A prominent, sharp jump occurs between the 4th and 5th electron removed (jumping to ≈4.21 ). This large increase indicates that the 5th electron is removed from a lower, completely filled inner principal quantum shell ( n=2 ). Therefore, element \ceQ has 4 valence electrons in its outer shell ( n=3 ), placing it in Group 14 of the Periodic Table (element \ceQ is silicon, Z=14 ).
2. Determine the formula of the chloride: With 4 valence electrons, element \ceQ forms a stable tetrachloride with chlorine: ** \ceQCl4 **.
3. Determine the number of unpaired electrons in the ground state: The full ground-state electronic configuration of neutral atom \ceQ ( Z=14 ) is 1s22s22p63s23p2 . - The 3s orbital is completely filled with 2 paired electrons. - By Hund's rule of maximum multiplicity, the 2 electrons in the 3p subshell occupy separate degenerate orbitals with parallel spins ( 3px13py13pz0 ). - Thus, there are 2 unpaired electrons in the ground-state neutral atom.
Therefore, row D is correct.
▸Question 9
The graph shows the boiling points of the hydrides of elements in Groups 14, 15, 16, and 17 for Periods 2 to 5.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1 Curve W represents the hydrides of Group 16, and the anomalously high boiling point of its Period 2 hydride is due to hydrogen bonding.
2 From Period 3 to Period 5 along each curve, the boiling point increases because the intramolecular covalent bonds become progressively stronger.
3 Curve Z represents the hydrides of Group 14, which show no anomaly in Period 2 because \ceCH4 molecules cannot form hydrogen bonds.
A.
none of them
B.
1 only
C.
2 only
D.
3 only
E.
1 and 2 only
F.
1 and 3 only
G.
2 and 3 only
H.
1, 2 and 3
Answer and solution
Answer: F
Statement 1 is correct: The Period 2 hydrides of Groups 15, 16, and 17 ( \ceNH3 , \ceH2O , and \ceHF ) exhibit hydrogen bonding between molecules. \ceH2O can form an average of two hydrogen bonds per molecule, giving it the highest boiling point ( 373 K ) among all the hydrides shown. Thus, Curve W corresponds to Group 16.
Statement 2 is incorrect: When simple molecular substances boil, intermolecular forces are overcome, not intramolecular covalent bonds. The increase in boiling point from Period 3 to Period 5 is due to an increasing number of electrons per molecule, which increases polarisability and leads to stronger London (dispersion) forces. In fact, the intramolecular covalent bond strengths decrease down each group.
Statement 3 is correct: Curve Z represents Group 14 hydrides ( \ceCH4 , \ceSiH4 , \ceGeH4 , \ceSnH4 ). Carbon is not sufficiently electronegative, and \ceCH4 has no lone pairs of electrons, so it cannot form hydrogen bonds. As a result, its boiling point trend increases monotonically with molecular size and shows no Period 2 anomaly.
Therefore, statements 1 and 3 only are correct.
▸Question 10
An extract from a plant secretion contains three volatile liquids: P, Q, and R. A student attempts to purify each liquid using the following procedure:
1. Place the mixture in a separating funnel and allow the layers to settle.
2. Run the layers into separate flasks.
3. Perform fractional distillation on the contents of each flask.
The properties of the pure liquids are shown below:
| Liquid | Density / g cm −3 | Boiling point / ∘ C | Miscibility with P | |---|---|---|---| | P | 0.79 | 78 | - | | Q | 0.81 | 78 | Miscible | | R | 1.00 | 78 | Immiscible |
Which of the liquids can be isolated in a pure form?
A.
P only
B.
R only
C.
P and Q only
D.
P and R only
E.
Q and R only
F.
P, Q and R
G.
None of them
Answer and solution
Answer: B
Step 1: Separation by density (Separating Funnel) Liquids P and Q are miscible, so they form a single phase. Liquid R is immiscible with P (and the P/Q mixture) and has a significantly different density ( 1.00 vs ≈0.80 ), so it forms a separate layer. The separating funnel allows Liquid R to be drained off and isolated pure.
Step 2: Separation by boiling point (Distillation) The remaining phase contains a mixture of P and Q. Fractional distillation relies on differences in boiling point to separate components. Since P and Q have the same boiling point ( 78∘ C), they cannot be separated by this method.
Therefore, only Liquid R is obtained in a pure form.
▸Question 11
Four gases W, X, Y and Z give the observations shown. Which row correctly identifies all four gases?
<div class="md-table-wrap"><table class="md-table"><thead><tr><th>gas</th><th>observation</th></tr></thead><tbody><tr><td>W</td><td>burning splint gives a squeaky pop</td></tr><tr><td>X</td><td>relights a glowing splint</td></tr><tr><td>Y</td><td>turns limewater cloudy</td></tr><tr><td>Z</td><td>damp blue litmus turns red and is then bleached</td></tr></tbody></table></div>
A.
\ceW=H2 , \ceX=O2 , \ceY=CO2 , \ceZ=Cl2
B.
\ceW=O2 , \ceX=H2 , \ceY=Cl2 , \ceZ=CO2
C.
\ceW=H2 , \ceX=CO2 , \ceY=O2 , \ceZ=Cl2
D.
\ceW=CO2 , \ceX=O2 , \ceY=H2 , \ceZ=Cl2
E.
\ceW=Cl2 , \ceX=H2 , \ceY=CO2 , \ceZ=O2
Answer and solution
Answer: A
A burning splint gives a squeaky pop with \ceH2 ; a glowing splint relights in \ceO2 ; limewater turns cloudy with \ceCO2 ; damp blue litmus turns red then bleaches with \ceCl2 .
▸Question 12
Citric acid, whose structure is shown below, is a naturally occurring organic acid found in citrus fruits.
In aqueous solution, citric acid is a weak acid that ionises in three successive equilibrium steps: \ceH3A(aq)<=>H+(aq)+H2A−(aq)\ceH2A−(aq)<=>H+(aq)+HA2−(aq)\ceHA2−(aq)<=>H+(aq)+A3−(aq) where \ceH3A represents citric acid.
A \pu0.10moldm−3 aqueous solution of hydrochloric acid, \ceHCl(aq) , has a pH of 1.0 at 25∘C .
Which of the following statements about these solutions is/are correct?
1 The pH of a \pu0.10moldm−3 aqueous solution of citric acid at 25∘C is greater than 1.0 .
2 In aqueous solution, the dihydrogen citrate ion, \ceH2A− , can act as both a Brønsted–Lowry acid and a Brønsted–Lowry base.
3 Exactly \pu30.0cm3 of \pu0.10moldm−3 barium hydroxide solution, \ceBa(OH)2(aq) , is required to completely neutralise \pu20.0cm3 of \pu0.10moldm−3 citric acid solution.
A.
none of them
B.
1 only
C.
2 only
D.
3 only
E.
1 and 2 only
F.
1 and 3 only
G.
2 and 3 only
H.
1, 2 and 3
Answer and solution
Answer: H
Statement 1 is correct: Hydrochloric acid is a strong monoprotic acid that fully dissociates in aqueous solution, giving [\ceH+]=\pu0.10moldm−3 and pH=−log10(0.10)=1.0 . Citric acid is a weak acid and only partially ionises in water ( Ka1≪1 ). Consequently, in a \pu0.10moldm−3 solution of citric acid, [\ceH+]<\pu0.10moldm−3 , which means its pH is greater than 1.0 .
Statement 2 is correct: The dihydrogen citrate ion, \ceH2A− , can donate a proton (acting as an acid to form \ceHA2− ) or accept a proton (acting as a base to form \ceH3A ). Thus, it is amphiprotic.
Statement 3 is correct: Citric acid possesses three carboxylic acid groups ( −\ceCOOH ) and one tertiary alcohol group ( −\ceOH ). The alcohol group does not react with aqueous metal hydroxides, so citric acid behaves as a tribasic (triprotic) acid ( \ceH3A ). Each formula unit of barium hydroxide, \ceBa(OH)2 , provides two hydroxide ions ( \ceOH− ). The balanced equation for complete neutralisation is: \ce2H3A+3Ba(OH)2−>Ba3A2+6H2O Moles of citric acid =0.0200 dm3×0.10 mol dm−3=2.0×10−3 mol . Moles of \ceBa(OH)2 required =23×(2.0×10−3 mol)=3.0×10−3 mol . Volume of \pu0.10moldm−3\ceBa(OH)2 required =0.10 mol dm−33.0×10−3 mol=0.0300 dm3=30.0 cm3 .
Therefore, all three statements (1, 2, and 3) are correct.
▸Question 13
Four metals are being considered for an overhead electrical cable. The cable must have the lowest possible mass while still having at least good electrical conductivity and good corrosion resistance. Which metal is most suitable based only on the data shown?
<div class="md-table-wrap"><table class="md-table"><thead><tr><th>metal</th><th>density / g cm−3 </th><th>electrical conductivity</th><th>corrosion resistance</th></tr></thead><tbody><tr><td>P</td><td>2.7</td><td>good</td><td>good</td></tr><tr><td>Q</td><td>8.9</td><td>excellent</td><td>good</td></tr><tr><td>R</td><td>7.9</td><td>moderate</td><td>poor</td></tr><tr><td>S</td><td>4.5</td><td>poor</td><td>excellent</td></tr></tbody></table></div>
A.
P
B.
Q
C.
R
D.
S
E.
There is not enough information
Answer and solution
Answer: A
For an overhead cable, low mass is important while good conductivity and corrosion resistance are also needed. Metal P best combines these properties.
▸Question 14
The diagram shows the enthalpy profile for a gaseous reaction that proceeds via a two-step mechanism: \ceX(g)−>Y(g)−>Z(g) Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1 The first step, \ceX(g)−>Y(g) , is the rate-determining step of the forward reaction.
2 The activation energy for the reverse reaction of the first step, \ceY(g)−>X(g) , is +70 kJ mol−1 .
3 The overall enthalpy change for the reaction \ceX(g)−>Z(g) is −90 kJ mol−1 .
A.
none of them
B.
1 only
C.
2 only
D.
3 only
E.
1 and 2 only
F.
1 and 3 only
G.
2 and 3 only
H.
1, 2 and 3
Answer and solution
Answer: F
1 is correct: The activation energy for step 1 ( \ceX−>Y ) is Ea,1=110−40=+70 kJ mol−1 . The activation energy for step 2 ( \ceY−>Z ) is Ea,2=80−20=+60 kJ mol−1 . Since step 1 has the higher activation energy barrier, it is the slower, rate-determining step for the forward reaction.
2 is incorrect: The activation energy for the reverse of step 1 ( \ceY−>X ) is the energy difference between transition state 1 and intermediate \ceY : Ea,rev,1=110−20=+90 kJ mol−1 . The value +70 kJ mol−1 is the forward activation energy ( 110−40 ).
3 is correct: The overall enthalpy change is ΔH=H(\ceZ)−H(\ceX)=−50−40=−90 kJ mol−1 .
Therefore, statements 1 and 3 only are correct.
▸Question 15
Element X has the atomic number 15.
Which of the following correctly describes the formula and the principal type of bonding in the simplest hydride of X?
A.
Formula: XH2 ; Bonding: covalent
B.
Formula: XH3 ; Bonding: ionic
C.
Formula: XH3 ; Bonding: covalent
D.
Formula: XH4 ; Bonding: covalent
E.
Formula: XH5 ; Bonding: covalent
Answer and solution
Answer: C
The element with atomic number Z=15 is phosphorus ( P ), which is in Group 15 (Period 3) of the periodic table. Its electronic configuration is [2,8,5] .
To complete its octet, the atom needs to gain or share 3 electrons. Since hydrogen is a non-metal and phosphorus is a non-metal with a similar electronegativity (2.19 vs 2.20), they form covalent bonds. The element forms 3 single bonds with hydrogen atoms.
Therefore, the simplest hydride is PH3 (or XH3 ) and the bonding is covalent.
▸Question 16
A long-chain alkane is cracked according to the incomplete equation: \ceC12H26−>C7H16+X Which option correctly gives X and one expected property of X?
A.
\ceC5H10 ; decolourises bromine water
B.
\ceC5H12 ; decolourises bromine water
C.
\ceC5H10 ; does not react with bromine water
D.
\ceC5H12 ; is an alkene
E.
\ceC6H12 ; decolourises bromine water
Answer and solution
Answer: A
Balancing atoms gives \ceC5H10 , an alkene, so it decolourises bromine water.
▸Question 17
A 0.010 mol sample of an ionic solid is dissolved in water to form a solution. The solution contains a total of 0.050 mol of ions.
Which compound could be the ionic solid?
A.
\ceNaCl
B.
\ceMgCl2
C.
\ceAlCl3
D.
\ceNa3PO4
E.
\ceAl2(SO4)3
F.
\ceC6H12O6
Answer and solution
Answer: E
First, calculate the number of moles of ions produced per mole of the ionic solid.
Ratio=moles of solidmoles of ions=0.010mol0.050mol=5
This means that each formula unit of the solid must dissociate to produce 5 ions in solution.
Next, we examine each option to determine the number of ions it produces upon dissociation:
* A: \ceNaCl(s)−>Na+(aq)+Cl−(aq) (produces 2 ions) * B: \ceMgCl2(s)−>Mg2+(aq)+2Cl−(aq) (produces 1 + 2 = 3 ions) * C: \ceAlCl3(s)−>Al3+(aq)+3Cl−(aq) (produces 1 + 3 = 4 ions) * D: \ceNa3PO4(s)−>3Na+(aq)+PO43−(aq) (produces 3 + 1 = 4 ions) * E: \ceAl2(SO4)3(s)−>2Al3+(aq)+3SO42−(aq) (produces 2 + 3 = 5 ions) * F: \ceC6H12O6 (glucose) is a molecular compound. It dissolves but does not dissociate into ions.
Only \ceAl2(SO4)3 produces 5 ions per formula unit, which matches the calculated ratio. Therefore, this is the correct answer.
▸Question 18
An organic compound \ceX contains only carbon, hydrogen, and sulfur ( \ceCxHySz ). Three separate oxidation processes are carried out using 1.0 mol of compound \ceX in each case:
- Process 1: Complete combustion of 1.0 mol of \ceX produces \ceCO2(g) , \ceH2O(l) , and \ceSO2(g) only, requiring exactly 7.0 mol of \ceO2(g) . - Process 2: Incomplete combustion of 1.0 mol of \ceX produces \ceCO2(g) , \ceH2O(l) , and solid sulfur, \ceS(s) , only, requiring exactly 6.0 mol of \ceO2(g) . - Process 3: Incomplete combustion of 1.0 mol of \ceX produces \ceCO(g) , \ceH2O(l) , and solid sulfur, \ceS(s) , only, requiring exactly 4.0 mol of \ceO2(g) .
What is the molecular formula of compound \ceX ?
A.
\ceC3H6S2
B.
\ceC3H8S
C.
\ceC4H6S
D.
\ceC4H8S
E.
\ceC4H8S2
F.
\ceC4H10S
G.
\ceC5H8S
H.
\ceC5H10S
Answer and solution
Answer: D
Write the general balanced equations for 1.0 mol of \ceCxHySz for each process:
1. Process 1 (complete combustion to \ceCO2 , \ceH2O , and \ceSO2 ): \ceCxHySz+(x+4y+z)O2−>xCO2+2yH2O+zSO2⟹x+4y+z=7.0 2. Process 2 (combustion to \ceCO2 , \ceH2O , and \ceS ): \ceCxHySz+(x+4y)O2−>xCO2+2yH2O+zS⟹x+4y=6.0 3. Process 3 (combustion to \ceCO , \ceH2O , and \ceS ): \ceCxHySz+(2x+4y)O2−>xCO+2yH2O+zS⟹2x+4y=4.0 Subtracting equation (2) from equation (1): z=7.0−6.0=1 Subtracting equation (3) from equation (2): (x+4y)−(2x+4y)=2x=6.0−4.0=2.0⟹x=4 Substituting x=4 into equation (2): 4+4y=6.0⟹4y=2.0⟹y=8 Thus, the molecular formula is \ceC4H8S .
▸Question 19
A researcher intends to purify organelle Q from a crude cellular lysate containing three major organelles: P, Q, and R. The physical properties of these organelles are shown in the table below.
| Organelle | Mean Diameter ( μm ) | Density ( g cm−3 ) | |---|---|---| | P | 12.0 | 1.30 | | Q | 2.5 | 1.15 | | R | 0.05 | 1.50 |
The lysate is prepared in a buffer with a density of 1.05 g cm−3 .
Which of the following procedures represents the most effective initial step to purify organelle Q?
A.
Centrifuge at 1000g (pellets particles >10μm ) and retain the supernatant.
B.
Centrifuge at 10000g (pellets particles >2.0μm ) and retain the pellet.
C.
Centrifuge at 100000g (pellets particles >0.02μm ) and retain the pellet.
D.
Centrifuge at 1000g (pellets particles >10μm ) and retain the pellet.
Answer and solution
Answer: A
The goal is to isolate organelle Q (2.5 μm).
1. Analyze the sizes: P (12.0 μm) > Q (2.5 μm) > R (0.05 μm). 2. Evaluate Option A: Centrifugation at 1000g pellets particles larger than 10 μm. Since P (12.0) > 10, P will pellet. Q (2.5) and R (0.05) will remain in the supernatant. This effectively removes the large contaminant P from Q. 3. Evaluate Option B: Centrifugation at 10 000g pellets particles larger than 2.0 μm. Both P (12.0) and Q (2.5) will pellet. The resulting pellet will contain a mixture of P and Q, making it difficult to separate them. 4. Evaluate Option C: Pellets everything (> 0.02 μm), resulting in no separation. 5. Evaluate Option D: Pellets P, but retaining the pellet discards the target Q (which is in the supernatant).
Therefore, the most effective initial step is to pellet the largest contaminant (P) and retain the supernatant containing the target (Q) for further purification (e.g., a subsequent faster spin).
▸Question 20
An oxyanion has the formula \ce[XO4]3− , where element \ceX has atomic number Z and mass number A . All oxygen atoms are the isotope \ce816O .
The \ce[XO4]3− ion contains a total of E electrons and a total of N neutrons.
Which row in the table gives the correct expressions for the atomic number Z , the number of neutrons in one atom of \ceX , and the mass number A of element \ceX ?
| | atomic number of \ceX ( Z ) | neutrons in one atom of \ceX | mass number of \ceX ( A ) | | :--- | :---: | :---: | :---: | | A | E−29 | N−32 | N+E−61 | | B | E−32 | N−32 | N+E−64 | | C | E−35 | N−32 | N+E−67 | | D | E−35 | N−32 | N+E−64 | | E | E−35 | N−35 | N+E−70 | | F | E−29 | N−29 | N+E−58 |
A.
atomic number: E−29 ; neutrons: N−32 ; mass number: N+E−61
B.
atomic number: E−32 ; neutrons: N−32 ; mass number: N+E−64
C.
atomic number: E−35 ; neutrons: N−32 ; mass number: N+E−67
D.
atomic number: E−35 ; neutrons: N−32 ; mass number: N+E−64
E.
atomic number: E−35 ; neutrons: N−35 ; mass number: N+E−70
F.
atomic number: E−29 ; neutrons: N−29 ; mass number: N+E−58
Answer and solution
Answer: C
1. **Atomic number of \ceX ( Z ):** Each \ce816O atom has 8 protons. The total number of protons in \ce[XO4]3− is Z+4(8)=Z+32 . Because the ion carries a charge of −3 , it has 3 more electrons than protons: E=(Z+32)+3=Z+35⟹Z=E−35 2. **Neutrons in one atom of \ceX :** Each \ce816O atom contains 16−8=8 neutrons. The 4 oxygen atoms contribute 4×8=32 neutrons. The total number of neutrons in the ion is N , so the number of neutrons in atom \ceX is: neutrons in \ceX=N−32 3. **Mass number of \ceX ( A ):** The mass number is the sum of protons and neutrons in one atom of \ceX : A=Z+(neutrons in \ceX)=(E−35)+(N−32)=N+E−67 Therefore, row C is correct.
▸Question 21
Avogadro's number is 6.0×1023 mol−1 . How many oxygen atoms are present in 0.25 mol of \ceO2 molecules?
A.
1.5×1023
B.
3.0×1023
C.
6.0×1023
D.
1.2×1024
E.
2.4×1024
Answer and solution
Answer: B
0.25 mol\ceO2 contains 0.50 mol O atoms, so the number of atoms is 0.50×6.0×1023=3.0×1023 .
▸Question 22
A student mixes 40 cm3 of 0.75 mol dm−3\ceNaOH solution with 60 cm3 of 1.00 mol dm−3\ceHCl solution. Both solutions are initially at 20.0∘C .
The enthalpy change of neutralisation for the reaction is −56 kJ mol−1 .
Assume that the density of the final mixture is 1.0 g cm−3 and the specific heat capacity is 4.2 J g−1 K−1 .
What is the final temperature of the mixture?
A.
4.0∘C
B.
24.0∘C
C.
28.0∘C
D.
30.0∘C
E.
32.0∘C
Answer and solution
Answer: B
First, calculate the amount (in moles) of each reactant:
n(\ceNaOH)=0.040 dm3×0.75 mol dm−3=0.030 mol
n(\ceHCl)=0.060 dm3×1.00 mol dm−3=0.060 mol
The reaction is \ceNaOH+HCl−>NaCl+H2O (1:1 ratio). \ceNaOH is the limiting reactant, so 0.030 mol of water is formed.
Calculate the heat energy released ( q ):
q=n×∣ΔH∣=0.030 mol×56000 J mol−1=1680 J
Calculate the temperature change ( ΔT ) using the total volume ( 40+60=100 cm3 , so mass m=100 g ):
ΔT=mcq=100×4.21680=4201680=4.0∘C
The reaction is exothermic, so the temperature increases:
Tf=Ti+ΔT=20.0+4.0=24.0∘C
▸Question 23
A 10 cm3 sample of a gaseous hydrocarbon was completely burned in 80 cm3 of oxygen gas (an excess) in a closed vessel.
The resulting mixture was cooled to the original room temperature and pressure, causing water vapour to condense completely. The remaining gas was then passed through an excess of aqueous potassium hydroxide, which absorbed all the carbon dioxide.
The volumes of gas measured at each stage, all under the same conditions of temperature and pressure, are shown in the table below:
| Stage of experiment | Volume of gas / cm3 | |---|---| | Hydrocarbon vapour | 10 | | Oxygen gas added initially (excess) | 80 | | Gas mixture after combustion and cooling to room temperature | 60 | | Gas mixture after treatment with excess aqueous potassium hydroxide | 20 |
What is the molecular formula of the hydrocarbon?
A.
\ceC3H6
B.
\ceC3H8
C.
\ceC4H6
D.
\ceC4H8
E.
\ceC4H10
Answer and solution
Answer: D
Let the general formula of the hydrocarbon be \ceCxHy .
The balanced equation for complete combustion is: \ceCxHy(g)+(x+4y)O2(g)−>xCO2(g)+2yH2O(l) By Avogadro's law, at constant temperature and pressure, gas volume is directly proportional to the amount of substance in moles.
1. **Volume of \ceCO2 produced:** After cooling, liquid water has negligible volume, so the 60 cm3 of gas consists of \ceCO2(g) and unreacted \ceO2(g) . When passed through aqueous \ceKOH , \ceCO2 is absorbed: V(\ceCO2)=60 cm3−20 cm3=40 cm3 2. **Determining x :** x=V(\ceCxHy)V(\ceCO2)=10 cm340 cm3=4 3. **Volume of \ceO2 consumed:** The remaining 20 cm3 of gas after \ceKOH treatment is unreacted \ceO2 . Thus: V(\ceO2)reacted=80 cm3−20 cm3=60 cm3 4. **Determining y :** V(\ceCxHy)V(\ceO2)reacted=x+4y=10 cm360 cm3=6 Substituting x=4 : 4+4y=6⟹4y=2⟹y=8 Therefore, the molecular formula of the hydrocarbon is \ceC4H8 , corresponding to option D.
▸Question 24
An aqueous solution of an acid X forms a white precipitate when aqueous barium chloride, followed by dilute hydrochloric acid, is added to it.
Acid X reacts with solid substance Y to form exactly two products. One of these products forms a green precipitate when aqueous sodium hydroxide is added to it.
Which of the following could be X and Y?
| | X | Y | | --- | --- | --- | | A | \ceHCl | \ceCuO | | B | \ceHCl | \ceFe | | C | \ceHCl | \ceFeCO3 | | D | \ceHCl | \ceZn | | E | \ceH2SO4 | \ceCuO | | F | \ceH2SO4 | \ceFe | | G | \ceH2SO4 | \ceFeCO3 | | H | \ceH2SO4 | \ceZn |
A.
X: \ceHCl , Y: \ceCuO
B.
X: \ceHCl , Y: \ceFe
C.
X: \ceHCl , Y: \ceFeCO3
D.
X: \ceHCl , Y: \ceZn
E.
X: \ceH2SO4 , Y: \ceCuO
F.
X: \ceH2SO4 , Y: \ceFe
G.
X: \ceH2SO4 , Y: \ceFeCO3
H.
X: \ceH2SO4 , Y: \ceZn
Answer and solution
Answer: F
1. Identify acid X: Adding aqueous barium chloride followed by dilute hydrochloric acid to acid X yields a white precipitate of insoluble barium sulfate: \ceBa2+(aq)+SO42−(aq)−>BaSO4(s) This confirms that X is sulfuric acid, \ceH2SO4 , eliminating options A, B, C, and D.
2. Identify substance Y: - Reaction with \ceFeCO3 : \ceFeCO3(s)+H2SO4(aq)−>FeSO4(aq)+CO2(g)+H2O(l) This reaction forms three products ( \ceFeSO4 , \ceCO2 , and \ceH2O ), which violates the condition of forming *exactly two products*. Thus, G is incorrect. - Reaction with \ceCuO : \ceCuO(s)+H2SO4(aq)−>CuSO4(aq)+H2O(l) This forms two products, but adding \ceNaOH(aq) to \ceCuSO4(aq) precipitates blue \ceCu(OH)2(s) , not a green precipitate. Thus, E is incorrect. - Reaction with \ceZn : \ceZn(s)+H2SO4(aq)−>ZnSO4(aq)+H2(g) This forms two products, but adding \ceNaOH(aq) precipitates white \ceZn(OH)2(s) , not a green precipitate. Thus, H is incorrect. - Reaction with \ceFe : \ceFe(s)+H2SO4(aq)−>FeSO4(aq)+H2(g) This reaction produces exactly two products (iron(II) sulfate and hydrogen gas). Adding \ceNaOH(aq) to \ceFeSO4(aq) precipitates iron(II) hydroxide, \ceFe(OH)2(s) , which is a green precipitate: \ceFe2+(aq)+2OH−(aq)−>Fe(OH)2(s) Therefore, X is \ceH2SO4 and Y is \ceFe (option F).
▸Question 25
Two monoprotic acids, X and Y , each have concentration 0.010mol dm−3 at the same temperature. The pH of acid X is 2 and the pH of acid Y is 3.
Which conclusion is best supported by this information?
A.
Acid X produces ten times the hydrogen-ion concentration of acid Y and is the stronger acid.
B.
Acid Y produces ten times the hydrogen-ion concentration of acid X and is the stronger acid.
C.
The acids have the same strength because their molar concentrations are equal.
D.
Acid X produces twice the hydrogen-ion concentration of acid Y .
E.
Acid Y does not dissociate in water.
Answer and solution
Answer: A
A decrease of 1 pH unit corresponds to a tenfold increase in hydrogen-ion concentration. Acid X has pH 2 while acid Y has pH 3, so
[H+]X=10[H+]Y.
The acids are monoprotic and have the same formal concentration. The greater hydrogen-ion concentration therefore shows that acid X dissociates to a greater extent and is the stronger acid. The correct option is A.
▸Question 26
A reaction between metallic zinc and dilute nitric acid produces an aqueous solution of zinc nitrate, water, and a gaseous oxide of nitrogen, \ceX , as the only products.
In the balanced chemical equation for this reaction, 4 mol of zinc reacts to produce 5 mol of water.
What is the formula of the gaseous oxide of nitrogen \ceX ?
A.
\ceN2O
B.
\ceNO
C.
\ceNO2
D.
\ceN2O3
E.
\ceN2O5
Answer and solution
Answer: A
1. Zinc forms \ceZn2+ ions, so zinc nitrate has the formula \ceZn(NO3)2 . 2. Conserving zinc atoms: 4 mol of \ceZn forms 4 mol of \ceZn(NO3)2 . 3. Conserving hydrogen atoms: 5 mol of \ceH2O contains 5×2=10 mol of H atoms . Since \ceHNO3 is the only source of hydrogen, 10 mol of \ceHNO3 must react. 4. Count the total atoms on the reactant side ( 4 mol \ceZn+10 mol \ceHNO3 ): - Zn:4 mol - H:10 mol - N:10 mol - O:10×3=30 mol 5. Count the atoms in the known products ( 4 mol \ceZn(NO3)2+5 mol \ceH2O ): - Zn:4 mol - H:10 mol - N:4×2=8 mol - O:(4×6)+(5×1)=24+5=29 mol 6. The remaining atoms must constitute substance \ceX : - N:10−8=2 mol - O:30−29=1 mol Therefore, the formula of oxide \ceX is \ceN2O .
▸Question 27
Which of the following aqueous solutions has a pH of 1.0?
A.
0.01mol dm−3 hydrochloric acid
B.
0.1mol dm−3 hydrochloric acid
C.
1.0mol dm−3 hydrochloric acid
D.
0.1mol dm−3 ethanoic acid
E.
0.1mol dm−3 sodium hydroxide
Answer and solution
Answer: B
The pH of a solution is defined as pH=−log10\ce[H+] .
To have a pH of 1.0, the concentration of hydrogen ions, \ce[H+] , must be 10−1.0=0.1mol dm−3 .
We need to identify the solution which produces this concentration of \ceH+ ions.
Hydrochloric acid ( \ceHCl ) is a strong monoprotic acid. This means it dissociates completely in aqueous solution:
\ceHCl(aq)−>H+(aq)+Cl−(aq)
Therefore, for a solution of hydrochloric acid, the concentration of \ceH+ ions is equal to the concentration of the acid itself. A 0.1mol dm−3 solution of hydrochloric acid will have \ce[H+]=0.1mol dm−3 .
Calculating the pH for this solution gives:
pH=−log10(0.1)=−(−1)=1.0
This matches the required pH.
The other options are incorrect: - Option A ( 0.01mol dm−3 hydrochloric acid) would have \ce[H+]=0.01mol dm−3 , so pH=−log10(0.01)=2.0 . - Option C ( 1.0mol dm−3 hydrochloric acid) would have \ce[H+]=1.0mol dm−3 , so pH=−log10(1.0)=0.0 . - Option D ( 0.1mol dm−3 ethanoic acid) is a weak acid and only partially dissociates, so its \ce[H+] would be less than 0.1mol dm−3 , resulting in a pH greater than 1. - Option E ( 0.1mol dm−3 sodium hydroxide) is a strong base. It would have \ce[OH−]=0.1mol dm−3 . Thus, pOH=−log10(0.1)=1.0 . The pH would be 14−pOH=14−1.0=13.0 .