Three liquid fractions (P, Q, and R) are extracted from a biological sample. Their physical properties are shown in the table below.
| Fraction | Density / g cm−3 | Boiling point / ∘C | Miscibility | |---|---|---|---| | P | 0.79 | 56 | Miscible with Q | | Q | 1.00 | 100 | Miscible with P | | R | 1.49 | 61 | Immiscible with P and Q |
The fractions are mixed in a separating funnel and allowed to settle, forming two layers.
Which procedure describes the correct method to obtain a pure sample of fraction P?
A.
Collect the upper layer and heat to 56∘C
B.
Collect the upper layer and heat to 100∘C
C.
Collect the lower layer and heat to 56∘C
D.
Collect the lower layer and heat to 61∘C
E.
Collect the upper layer and heat to 61∘C
Answer and solution
Answer: A
First, determine the composition of the layers. P and Q are miscible, so they form a single mixed phase. R is immiscible with both, so it forms a separate phase.
Next, determine the position of the layers using density. The density of the P + Q mixture will be intermediate between 0.79 and 1.00 (approx. 0.90g cm−3 ), which is significantly lower than the density of R ( 1.49g cm−3 ). Therefore, the upper layer contains the P + Q mixture, and the lower layer contains pure R.
Finally, to separate P from the P + Q mixture (upper layer), fractional distillation is used. P has the lower boiling point ( 56∘C ) compared to Q ( 100∘C ). The mixture should be heated to ** 56∘C ** to vaporise and collect P.
▸Question 2
A student conducts two experiments to heat liquids using the energy released from the combustion of a fixed amount of ethanol. Assume that there is no heat loss and that the amount of energy transferred to the liquid is the same in both experiments.
In Experiment 1, mass m of liquid X (specific heat capacity c ) is heated, and the temperature rises by ΔT .
In Experiment 2, mass 3m of liquid Y (specific heat capacity 21c ) is heated.
Which expression gives the temperature rise in Experiment 2?
A.
61ΔT
B.
31ΔT
C.
32ΔT
D.
23ΔT
E.
6ΔT
Answer and solution
Answer: C
The energy transferred ( q ) is given by the equation:
q=mcΔT
Rearranging for temperature change:
ΔT=mcq
In Experiment 1, the temperature rise is ΔT .
In Experiment 2, the energy q is the same, but the mass is 3m and the specific heat capacity is 21c . Substituting these values into the equation for the new temperature rise ( ΔT2 ):
ΔT2=(3m)(21c)q=23mcq
Since mcq=ΔT , we can substitute this back in:
ΔT2=231×(mcq)=32ΔT
▸Question 3
Two reversible gas-phase reactions are carried out in separate closed vessels: Reaction 1: \ceCO(g)+2H2(g)<=>CH3OH(g)ΔH=−90 kJ mol−1Reaction 2: \ceCO2(g)+H2(g)<=>CO(g)+H2O(g)ΔH=+41 kJ mol−1 The following actions could be applied independently to each reaction system:
1 decreasing the volume of the reaction container at constant temperature
2 increasing the temperature of the reaction container at constant volume
3 adding an appropriate catalyst at constant temperature and volume
Assuming all gases behave ideally, which of these actions will increase the initial rate of the forward reaction for both reactions, and increase the equilibrium yield of products for Reaction 1, while having no effect on the equilibrium yield of products for Reaction 2?
A.
none of them
B.
1 only
C.
2 only
D.
3 only
E.
1 and 2 only
F.
1 and 3 only
G.
2 and 3 only
H.
1, 2 and 3
Answer and solution
Answer: B
Let us evaluate the effect of each action on initial forward rate and equilibrium yield:
- Action 1 (decreasing the volume at constant temperature): - Decreasing volume increases the concentrations of gaseous reactants, which increases the collision frequency and therefore increases the initial rate of the forward reaction for both reactions. - For Reaction 1, there are 3 moles of gas on the reactant side and 1 mole of gas on the product side ( 3→1 ). Decreasing volume increases total pressure, shifting the equilibrium to the side with fewer moles of gas (forward), thereby **increasing the equilibrium yield of \ceCH3OH(g) **. - For Reaction 2, there are 2 moles of gas on the reactant side and 2 moles of gas on the product side ( 2→2 ). Because Δngas=0 , changes in pressure/volume have no effect on the equilibrium position or yield. - Therefore, Action 1 satisfies all criteria.
- Action 2 (increasing the temperature at constant volume): - Increases the initial rate for both reactions. - Reaction 1 is exothermic ( ΔH<0 ). By Le Chatelier's principle, increasing temperature shifts the equilibrium in the endothermic (reverse) direction, decreasing the equilibrium yield of \ceCH3OH . - Reaction 2 is endothermic ( ΔH>0 ), so increasing temperature shifts equilibrium to the right, increasing its yield (rather than having no effect). - Therefore, Action 2 does not satisfy the criteria.
- Action 3 (adding an appropriate catalyst): - Increases the initial forward rate for both reactions by providing an alternative pathway with lower activation energy. - Catalysts speed up both the forward and reverse reactions equally, so a catalyst has no effect on the equilibrium yield of products for either reaction. Thus, it fails to increase the equilibrium yield for Reaction 1.
Hence, only action 1 satisfies all conditions.
▸Question 4
Which of the following statements about greenhouse gases is/are correct?
1. Methane can be released by the decomposition of organic waste in landfill sites. 2. Greenhouse gases mainly cool the Earth by reflecting incoming visible light back into space. 3. Burning fossil fuels can increase atmospheric carbon dioxide and strengthen the greenhouse effect.
A.
none of them
B.
1 only
C.
2 only
D.
3 only
E.
1 and 2 only
F.
1 and 3 only
G.
2 and 3 only
H.
1, 2 and 3
Answer and solution
Answer: F
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Greenhouse warming is associated with reduced loss of infrared radiation, not mainly reflection of visible light, so statement 2 is incorrect.
▸Question 5
The complete combustion of the amino acid cysteine, \ceC3H7NO2S , produces carbon dioxide, water, nitrogen gas, and sulfur dioxide according to the equation: \ceaC3H7NO2S+bO2−>cCO2+dH2O+eN2+fSO2 What is the value of b when the equation is balanced using the lowest whole-number coefficients?
A.
9
B.
11
C.
15
D.
17
E.
19
F.
23
G.
38
Answer and solution
Answer: E
To balance the equation, express the coefficients in terms of a by applying the conservation of atoms for each element:
1. Carbon (C):3a=c⟹c=3a 2. Hydrogen (H):7a=2d⟹d=27a 3. Nitrogen (N):a=2e⟹e=21a 4. Sulfur (S):a=f⟹f=a 5. Oxygen (O):Total O on left=2a+2bTotal O on right=2c+d+2f=2(3a)+27a+2(a)=223a Equating oxygen atoms on both sides: 2a+2b=223a2b=219a⟹b=419a To obtain the smallest whole-number coefficients, set a=4 : - a=4 - b=19 - c=12 - d=14 - e=2 - f=4 Checking the balanced equation: \ce4C3H7NO2S+19O2−>12CO2+14H2O+2N2+4SO2 Thus, the coefficient b=19 .
▸Question 6
The graph shows how the concentrations of four substances, \ceW , \ceX , \ceY , and \ceZ , change over time during a reaction in a closed vessel at constant temperature.
Which of the following is the balanced equation for this reaction?
A.
\ce3W+X−>2Y+Z
B.
\ce3W+X−>4Y+3Z
C.
\ce3W+2X−>2Y+Z
D.
\ce3W+2X−>2Y+3Z
E.
\ce6W+4X−>4Y+3Z
F.
\ce3W−>X+2Y+Z
Answer and solution
Answer: A
To find the balanced chemical equation, determine whether each species is a reactant or product, and calculate its change in concentration ( Δ[concentration] ):
1. Reactants (concentrations decrease): - \ceW : decreases from 1.20 mol dm−3 to 0.00 mol dm−3 , so Δ[\ceW]=−1.20 mol dm−3 . - \ceX : decreases from 0.80 mol dm−3 to 0.40 mol dm−3 , so Δ[\ceX]=−0.40 mol dm−3 .
2. Products (concentrations increase): - \ceY : increases from 0.00 mol dm−3 to 0.80 mol dm−3 , so Δ[\ceY]=+0.80 mol dm−3 . - \ceZ : increases from 0.20 mol dm−3 to 0.60 mol dm−3 , so Δ[\ceZ]=+0.40 mol dm−3 .
3. Stoichiometric ratio: The ratio of changes in concentration is: −Δ[\ceW]:−Δ[\ceX]:Δ[\ceY]:Δ[\ceZ]=1.20:0.40:0.80:0.40=3:1:2:1 Therefore, the balanced equation is \ce3W+X−>2Y+Z .
▸Question 7
The graph shows the volume of gas collected at each of two inert electrodes, X and Y, during the electrolysis of dilute aqueous sulfuric acid, \ceH2SO4(aq) , at constant current, temperature, and pressure.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Electrode X is connected to the negative terminal of the power supply.
2. In the external circuit, electrons flow from electrode X to electrode Y.
3. For every 1 mol of gas collected at electrode Y, 4 mol of electrons pass through the external circuit.
A.
none of them
B.
1 only
C.
2 only
D.
3 only
E.
1 and 2 only
F.
1 and 3 only
G.
2 and 3 only
H.
1, 2 and 3
Answer and solution
Answer: F
During the electrolysis of dilute \ceH2SO4(aq) , the electrode reactions are:
Cathode (negative electrode, reduction): \ce2H+(aq)+2e−−>H2(g) Anode (positive electrode, oxidation): \ce2H2O(l)−>O2(g)+4H+(aq)+4e− The overall equation is \ce2H2O(l)−>2H2(g)+O2(g) , producing a 2:1 molar (and volume) ratio of \ceH2 to \ceO2 .
From the graph, electrode X produces twice the volume of gas compared to electrode Y ( 80 cm3 vs 40 cm3 at 20 min ). Therefore, gas X is \ceH2 and gas Y is \ceO2 .
- Statement 1 is correct: \ceH2 is produced at the cathode, which is connected to the negative terminal of the d.c. power supply. - Statement 2 is incorrect: Oxidation releases electrons at the anode (electrode Y), and reduction consumes electrons at the cathode (electrode X). Thus, in the external circuit, electrons flow from electrode Y to electrode X. - Statement 3 is correct: The half-equation at the anode shows that producing 1 mol of \ceO2 (gas Y) requires the transfer of 4 mol of electrons through the external circuit.
Therefore, statements 1 and 3 only are correct (option F).
▸Question 8
The following information about four non-metallic elements labelled W, X, Y and Z is given:
- Elements W and Y displace bromine from an aqueous solution of potassium bromide, \ceKBr(aq) . - Elements X and Z cannot displace bromine from an aqueous solution of potassium bromide, \ceKBr(aq) . - Element Y reacts explosively with hydrogen gas in the dark, whereas element W requires ultraviolet light to react with hydrogen gas. - Element Z reacts with an aqueous solution of the sodium salt \ceNaX to displace element X.
What is the order of reactivity (oxidising ability) of these four elements, starting with the most reactive?
A.
W, Y, X, Z
B.
W, Y, Z, X
C.
X, Z, W, Y
D.
X, Z, Y, W
E.
Y, W, X, Z
F.
Y, W, Z, X
G.
Z, X, W, Y
H.
Z, X, Y, W
Answer and solution
Answer: F
1. Elements W and Y displace bromine from \ceKBr(aq) , meaning they are stronger oxidising agents (more reactive) than bromine. Elements X and Z cannot displace bromine from \ceKBr(aq) , meaning they are weaker oxidising agents (less reactive) than bromine. Therefore, both W and Y are more reactive than both X and Z: {W,Y}>{X,Z} .
2. Element Y reacts explosively with \ceH2 in the dark, whereas element W requires ultraviolet light. Reactivity of non-metals with hydrogen decreases as oxidising power decreases. Therefore, Y is more reactive than W: Y>W .
3. Element Z displaces element X from an aqueous solution of \ceNaX . A more reactive non-metal displaces a less reactive one from its salt solution, so Z is more reactive than X: Z>X .
Combining these results gives the order from most reactive to least reactive: Y>W>Z>X Hence, the correct option is F.
▸Question 9
Element X has an atomic number of 15. It reacts with hydrogen to form a simple molecular hydride.
Which option gives the correct formula of the hydride and the shape of the molecule?
A.
XH2 , linear
B.
XH2 , bent (V-shaped)
C.
XH3 , trigonal planar
D.
XH3 , trigonal pyramidal
E.
XH4 , tetrahedral
Answer and solution
Answer: D
First, determine the group of element X from its atomic number ( Z=15 ).
The electron configuration is 1s22s22p63s23p3 .
The outer shell ( n=3 ) has 2+3=5 valence electrons, placing X in Group 15.
To complete its octet, X needs 3 electrons, so it forms 3 single bonds with hydrogen atoms. The formula is XH3 .
Next, determine the shape using VSEPR theory:
- Valence electrons on X: 5
- Electrons used in bonding: 3 (one for each H)
- Remaining electrons: 5−3=2 (1 lone pair)
There are 3 bonding pairs and 1 lone pair (4 electron domains in total). The electron arrangement is tetrahedral, but the molecular geometry is determined by the atom positions only, resulting in a trigonal pyramidal shape.
▸Question 10
Calcium carbonate reacts with hydrochloric acid according to the equation: \ceCaCO3(s)+2HCl(aq)−>CaCl2(aq)+CO2(g)+H2O(l) In a baseline experiment (represented by curve X on the graph), 2.00 g of large marble chips ( \ceCaCO3 ) reacts with 50 cm3 of 1.0 mol dm−3\ceHCl(aq) at 25∘C .
Two further experiments are carried out at 25∘C :
- Experiment 1:3.00 g of powdered \ceCaCO3 is reacted with 50 cm3 of 1.0 mol dm−3\ceHCl(aq) - Experiment 2:2.00 g of large marble chips ( \ceCaCO3 ) is reacted with 100 cm3 of 0.40 mol dm−3\ceHCl(aq) ( Mr value: \ceCaCO3=100 )
Which curves show how the volume of \ceCO2 evolved changes with time in Experiment 1 and Experiment 2?
1. Baseline Experiment (Curve X): - Amount of \ceCaCO3=100 g mol−12.00 g=0.020 mol . - Amount of \ceHCl=0.050 dm3×1.0 mol dm−3=0.050 mol . - Stoichiometry requires 2 mol \ceHCl per 1 mol \ceCaCO3 , so 0.020 mol \ceCaCO3 requires 0.040 mol \ceHCl . - \ceCaCO3 is the limiting reagent, producing 0.020 mol of \ceCO2 (represented by a final height of 4 grid units).
2. Experiment 1: - Amount of \ceCaCO3=100 g mol−13.00 g=0.030 mol . - Amount of \ceHCl=0.050 mol . - To react all 0.030 mol \ceCaCO3 would require 0.060 mol \ceHCl . Therefore, \ceHCl is now the limiting reagent. - Amount of \ceCO2 formed =20.050=0.025 mol , which is 0.0200.025=1.25× the baseline volume ( 1.25×4=5 grid units). - Powdered \ceCaCO3 provides a larger surface area, giving a greater initial rate (steeper initial gradient). - This corresponds to curve 2.
3. Experiment 2: - Amount of \ceCaCO3=0.020 mol . - Amount of \ceHCl=0.100 dm3×0.40 mol dm−3=0.040 mol . - The reagents are in exact stoichiometric ratio ( 0.040/2=0.020 mol ), producing 0.020 mol of \ceCO2 (the same final volume as the baseline, 4 grid units). - The lower concentration of \ceHCl ( 0.40 mol dm−3 vs 1.0 mol dm−3 ) results in a lower initial rate (shallower initial gradient). - This corresponds to curve 4.
Therefore, the correct row is C.
▸Question 11
The reaction energy profile for a two-step gas-phase reaction \ceP(g)−>Q(g)−>R(g) is shown in the diagram below.
From the information provided in the energy profile: - The activation energy for the forward step \ceP−>Q is 58 kJ mol−1 . - The intermediate \ceQ has an enthalpy 22 kJ mol−1 higher than reactant \ceP . - The activation energy for the forward step \ceQ−>R is 74 kJ mol−1 . - The overall enthalpy change for \ceP−>R is ΔH=−35 kJ mol−1 .
What are the activation energy for the conversion of intermediate \ceQ to reactant \ceP ( Ea(\ceQ−>P) ) and the activation energy for the conversion of product \ceR to intermediate \ceQ ( Ea(\ceR−>Q) )?
Set the enthalpy of the initial reactant \ceP as the reference level H(\ceP)=0 kJ mol−1 .
1. **First transition state ( TS1 ):** The forward activation energy for \ceP−>Q is 58 kJ mol−1 , so: H(TS1)=0+58=+58 kJ mol−1 2. **Intermediate \ceQ :** H(\ceQ)=+22 kJ mol−1 Therefore, the activation energy for the reverse step \ceQ−>P is: Ea(\ceQ−>P)=H(TS1)−H(\ceQ)=58−22=36 kJ mol−1 3. **Second transition state ( TS2 ):** The activation energy for \ceQ−>R is 74 kJ mol−1 relative to \ceQ : H(TS2)=H(\ceQ)+74=22+74=+96 kJ mol−1 4. **Product \ceR :** The overall enthalpy change is ΔH=−35 kJ mol−1 , so: H(\ceR)=−35 kJ mol−1 Therefore, the activation energy for the conversion \ceR−>Q is the barrier from \ceR to TS2 : Ea(\ceR−>Q)=H(TS2)−H(\ceR)=96−(−35)=131 kJ mol−1 Thus, Ea(\ceQ−>P)=36 kJ mol−1 and Ea(\ceR−>Q)=131 kJ mol−1 , corresponding to option C.
▸Question 12
A pure liquid is boiling at its normal boiling point while energy is supplied continuously. Why can the temperature remain constant while boiling continues?
A.
The particles stop moving while bonds are broken.
B.
The supplied energy is destroyed as the gas forms.
C.
The supplied energy is used to overcome attractions between particles as they separate.
D.
The particles lose kinetic energy as the liquid boils.
E.
The mass of each particle decreases during boiling.
Answer and solution
Answer: C
During a change of state, energy is used to overcome attractive forces and change particle arrangement rather than raise the temperature.
▸Question 13
The skeletal structure of limonene is shown below:
Limonene undergoes complete catalytic hydrogenation to form a fully saturated hydrocarbon.
What is the minimum volume of hydrogen gas, measured at room temperature and pressure (RTP), required to react completely with 1.60 cm3 of limonene?
( Mr of limonene = 136 ; density of limonene = 0.85 g cm−3 ; molar volume of a gas at RTP = 24.0 dm3 mol−1 )
A.
0.024 dm3
B.
0.048 dm3
C.
0.24 dm3
D.
0.48 dm3
E.
0.72 dm3
F.
0.96 dm3
G.
2.4 dm3
H.
4.8 dm3
Answer and solution
Answer: D
1. Calculate the mass of limonene: mass=volume×density=1.60 cm3×0.85 g cm−3=1.36 g 2. Calculate the amount in moles of limonene: n(limonene)=136 g mol−11.36 g=0.010 mol 3. Determine the stoichiometry: From the skeletal structure, limonene contains 2\ceC=C double bonds (one in the six-membered ring and one in the isopropenyl group). Therefore, complete hydrogenation requires 2 mol of \ceH2 per mole of limonene: n(\ceH2)=2×0.010 mol=0.020 mol 4. Calculate the volume of \ceH2(g) at RTP: V(\ceH2)=0.020 mol×24.0 dm3 mol−1=0.48 dm3
▸Question 14
A 0.45 g sample of the organic compound shown below reacts completely with an excess of sodium metal at room temperature.
Any gas produced is collected and its volume is measured at room temperature and pressure (r.t.p.).
Assuming 1.0 mol of gas occupies 24.0 dm3 at r.t.p., what volume of gas is collected?
( Ar values: \ceH=1.0;\ceC=12.0;\ceO=16.0 )
A.
0.12 cm3
B.
60 cm3
C.
120 cm3
D.
180 cm3
E.
240 cm3
F.
360 cm3
G.
600 cm3
Answer and solution
Answer: C
1. Determine the molecular formula and relative molecular mass ( Mr ) of the compound (2-hydroxypropanoic acid): Formula=\ceC3H6O3Mr=(3×12.0)+(6×1.0)+(3×16.0)=36.0+6.0+48.0=90.0 2. Calculate the moles of the compound in 0.45 g : n=90.0 g mol−10.45 g=0.0050 mol 3. Determine the stoichiometry of the reaction with sodium metal: Sodium reacts with both the alcohol group ( −\ceOH ) and the carboxylic acid group ( −\ceCOOH ): \ce−OH+Na−>−ONa+1/2H2\ce−COOH+Na−>−COONa+1/2H2 Each molecule of 2-hydroxypropanoic acid contains one −\ceOH group and one −\ceCOOH group, so each mole of compound produces: 21+21=1.0 mol of \ceH2(g)\ceCH3CH(OH)COOH+2Na−>CH3CH(ONa)COONa+H2(g) 4. Calculate the volume of \ceH2 gas produced: n(\ceH2)=0.0050 molV=0.0050 mol×24.0 dm3 mol−1=0.120 dm3V=0.120×1000 cm3=120 cm3 Thus, the correct option is C.
▸Question 15
An aqueous solution gives a green precipitate when aqueous sodium hydroxide is added. A separate sample gives a white precipitate when aqueous barium chloride is added in the presence of dilute hydrochloric acid.
Which salt could the solution contain?
A.
\ceFeSO4
B.
\ceFeCl2
C.
\ceCuSO4
D.
\ceFe2(SO4)3
E.
\ceMgSO4
F.
\ceCaCl2
Answer and solution
Answer: A
A green precipitate with \ceNaOH identifies \ceFe2+ , while the acidified barium test identifies sulfate, giving \ceFeSO4 .
▸Question 16
Which of the following are common properties of transition metals?
1. They can form stable ions in different oxidation states. 2. Their compounds are often coloured. 3. They or their compounds are often used as catalysts.
A.
none of them
B.
1 only
C.
2 only
D.
3 only
E.
1 and 2 only
F.
1 and 3 only
G.
2 and 3 only
H.
1, 2 and 3
Answer and solution
Answer: H
All three are specified common properties of transition metals.
▸Question 17
An experiment investigates the reaction between solid marble chips (calcium carbonate, \ceCaCO3 ) and an excess of dilute hydrochloric acid: \ceCaCO3(s)+2HCl(aq)−>CaCl2(aq)+CO2(g)+H2O(l) In a second experiment, the same mass of \ceCaCO3 is used, but the solid is ground into a fine powder. All other conditions, including the volume, concentration, and initial temperature of the hydrochloric acid, are kept exactly the same.
How do the frequency of collisions between reactant particles, the activation energy of the reaction, and the initial rate of reaction in the second experiment compare to those in the first experiment?
| | Frequency of collisions between reactant particles | Activation energy | Initial rate of reaction | | :---: | :---: | :---: | :---: | | A | decreases | decreases | decreases | | B | decreases | unchanged | decreases | | C | unchanged | decreases | increases | | D | unchanged | unchanged | increases | | E | increases | decreases | increases | | F | increases | increases | increases | | G | increases | unchanged | increases | | H | increases | unchanged | unchanged |
A.
decreases, decreases, decreases
B.
decreases, unchanged, decreases
C.
unchanged, decreases, increases
D.
unchanged, unchanged, increases
E.
increases, decreases, increases
F.
increases, increases, increases
G.
increases, unchanged, increases
H.
increases, unchanged, unchanged
Answer and solution
Answer: G
1. Frequency of collisions: Grinding the solid calcium carbonate into a fine powder significantly increases the exposed surface area of the solid. With more \ceCaCO3 particles accessible to the aqueous \ceH+ ions at any given instant, the frequency of collisions between reactant particles increases.
2. Activation energy: Activation energy is the minimum kinetic energy that colliding particles must possess for a reaction to occur. It depends exclusively on the chemical reaction pathway. Changing the physical surface area of a reactant does not alter the reaction mechanism or pathway, so the activation energy remains unchanged (only a catalyst changes the activation energy).
3. Initial rate of reaction: Because the frequency of collisions increases while the proportion of successful collisions (those with energy E≥Ea ) remains unchanged at constant temperature, the frequency of successful collisions per unit time increases, and therefore the initial rate of reaction increases.
Hence, row G is correct.
▸Question 18
Concentrated aqueous solutions of the following three compounds are electrolysed separately using inert electrodes: 1. \ceNaCl 2. \ceHBr 3. \ceCuCl2 Which of the solutions yield(s) the elemental form of all the constituent elements of the solute at the electrodes?
A.
3 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
1 and 3 only
D.
2 and 3 only
E.
1, 2 and 3
Answer and solution
Answer: D
We must identify the constituent elements of each solute and compare them to the products formed at the cathode and anode during concentrated aqueous electrolysis.
1. ** \ceNaCl (Constituent elements: Na, Cl) - Cathode:** Hydrogen ( \ceH2 ) is produced because sodium is more reactive than hydrogen. - Anode: Chlorine ( \ceCl2 ) is produced (concentrated halide). - Result: Products are H and Cl. Na is missing. (Incorrect)
2. ** \ceHBr (Constituent elements: H, Br) - Cathode:** Hydrogen ( \ceH2 ) is produced. - Anode: Bromine ( \ceBr2 ) is produced (concentrated halide). - Result: Products are H and Br. Both constituent elements are present. (Correct)
3. ** \ceCuCl2 (Constituent elements: Cu, Cl) - Cathode:** Copper ( \ceCu ) is produced because copper is less reactive than hydrogen. - Anode: Chlorine ( \ceCl2 ) is produced (concentrated halide). - Result: Products are Cu and Cl. Both constituent elements are present. (Correct)
Therefore, solutions 2 and 3 meet the condition.
▸Question 19
A redox reaction occurs in acidic solution between the complex ion \ce[PtCl4]2− and the permanganate ion \ceMnO4− . In this reaction: * The platinum is oxidised from its state in the complex ion to the +4 oxidation state. * The manganese is reduced from its state in the permanganate ion to the +2 oxidation state. What is the simplest whole number mole ratio of \ce[PtCl4]2− to \ceMnO4− required for the reaction?
A.
1:1
B.
2:1
C.
2:5
D.
5:2
E.
5:1
Answer and solution
Answer: D
First, determine the initial oxidation states of the central atoms:
* In \ce[PtCl4]2− , chloride is −1 . The oxidation state of Pt is calculated as: x+4(−1)=−2⟹x=+2 . * In \ceMnO4− , oxygen is −2 . The oxidation state of Mn is calculated as: y+4(−2)=−1⟹y=+7 .
Next, calculate the change in oxidation number (electrons transferred) per ion:
* Pt oxidises from +2 to +4 , a loss of 2 electrons per Pt atom. * Mn reduces from +7 to +2 , a gain of 5 electrons per Mn atom.
To balance the electrons, the total electrons lost must equal the total electrons gained. The lowest common multiple of 2 and 5 is 10 .
5×(loss of 2e−)=2×(gain of 5e−)
Therefore, we need 5 moles of \ce[PtCl4]2− for every 2 moles of \ceMnO4− .
The ratio is 5:2 .
▸Question 20
A sample of a metal \ceM consists of only two isotopes: 69\ceM (relative isotopic mass 69.0 ) and 71\ceM (relative isotopic mass 71.0 ).
A 4.872 g sample of pure metal \ceM reacts completely with oxygen to form 6.552 g of the oxide \ceM2O3 .
What is the percentage abundance of the 69\ceM isotope in this sample?
(Assume the relative atomic mass of oxygen is 16.0 .)
A.
30%
B.
35%
C.
60%
D.
65%
E.
70%
F.
75%
Answer and solution
Answer: E
1. Find the mass and moles of oxygen combined with metal \ceM : Mass of \ceO=6.552 g−4.872 g=1.680 gn(\ceO)=16.0 g mol−11.680 g=0.105 mol 2. Use the stoichiometric ratio from the formula \ceM2O3 to find the moles of \ceM : n(\ceO)n(\ceM)=32⟹n(\ceM)=32×0.105 mol=0.070 mol 3. Calculate the relative atomic mass Ar(\ceM) : Ar(\ceM)=0.070 mol4.872 g=69.60 4. Let x be the percentage abundance of 69\ceM . The abundance of 71\ceM is (100−x)% : 10069.0x+71.0(100−x)=69.6071.0−0.02x=69.600.02x=1.40⟹x=70%
▸Question 21
Methanol can be synthesised industrially in the gas phase from carbon monoxide and hydrogen according to the following equation: \ceCO(g)+2H2(g)−>CH3OH(g) When 1 mol of \ceCO(g) reacts completely with hydrogen, 112 kJ of energy is released.
Some mean bond enthalpies are given in the table below:
Which experiment produces at least 0.10 mol of H2 in the shortest time?
A.
Experiment 1
B.
Experiment 2
C.
Experiment 3
D.
Experiment 4
E.
Experiment 5
Answer and solution
Answer: D
First, determine the minimum reactant amounts required to produce 0.10 mol of H2 using the stoichiometry Mg:HCl=1:2 .
Required: - Moles of Mg≥0.10 mol . Mass ≥0.10×24=2.4 g . - Moles of HCl≥0.20 mol ( 2×0.10 ).
Check the yield for each experiment: - Exp 1:Mg=241.2=0.05 mol . Insufficient Mg. - Exp 2:HCl=0.150×1.0=0.15 mol . This produces only 0.075 molH2 . Insufficient HCl. - Exp 3:Mg=0.10 mol , HCl=0.30 mol . Sufficient. - Exp 4:Mg=0.10 mol , HCl=0.20 mol . Sufficient. - Exp 5:Mg=0.20 mol , HCl=0.20 mol . Sufficient (HCl is limiting, produces 0.10 mol).
Now compare the rates of the feasible experiments (3, 4, and 5): - Exp 3: Ribbon, 20∘C , 1.0 mol dm−3 . (Slowest) - Exp 5: Ribbon, 40∘C , 2.0 mol dm−3 . - Exp 4: Powder, 40∘C , 2.0 mol dm−3 .
Experiment 4 is faster than Experiment 5 because powder has a larger surface area than ribbon. Experiment 4 is faster than Experiment 3 due to higher temperature, concentration, and surface area.
Therefore, Experiment 4 is the correct answer.
▸Question 23
An organic carboxylic acid X has the condensed structural formula \ceHOOCCH2CH2COOH . Acid X contains two carboxylic acid groups.
A student dissolves 0.590 g of acid X in distilled water and makes the volume up to 250 cm3 in a volumetric flask.
A 25.0 cm3 portion of this solution is transferred to a conical flask and titrated against aqueous potassium hydroxide, \ceKOH(aq) . Exactly 20.0 cm3 of the \ceKOH(aq) solution is required for complete neutralisation.
What is the concentration of the potassium hydroxide solution in mol dm−3 ?
( Ar values: \ceH=1.0 , \ceC=12.0 , \ceO=16.0 )
A.
0.0125 mol dm−3
B.
0.0250 mol dm−3
C.
0.0500 mol dm−3
D.
0.100 mol dm−3
E.
0.250 mol dm−3
F.
0.500 mol dm−3
Answer and solution
Answer: C
Step 1: Determine the molecular formula and relative molecular mass ( Mr ) of X . From the displayed structure, acid X is butanedioic acid, \ceHOOC−CH2−CH2−COOH , which has the molecular formula \ceC4H6O4 . Mr(\ceC4H6O4)=(4×12.0)+(6×1.0)+(4×16.0)=48.0+6.0+64.0=118.0 g mol−1 Step 2: Calculate the amount of X in the original 250 cm3 solution. n(X)total=118.0 g mol−10.590 g=0.00500 mol Step 3: Calculate the amount of X in the 25.0 cm3 portion used for titration. n(X)titrated=0.00500 mol×250 cm325.0 cm3=5.00×10−4 mol Step 4: Determine the stoichiometry of neutralisation. Acid X contains two carboxylic acid groups ( −\ceCOOH ), so it is diprotic: \ceHOOC(CH2)2COOH+2KOH−>KOOC(CH2)2COOK+2H2On(\ceKOH)=2×n(X)titrated=2×(5.00×10−4 mol)=1.00×10−3 mol Step 5: Calculate the concentration of the \ceKOH(aq) solution. c(\ceKOH)=V(\ceKOH)n(\ceKOH)=0.0200 dm31.00×10−3 mol=0.0500 mol dm−3 Therefore, the correct option is C.
▸Question 24
Propane-1,3-diol, \ceHOCH2CH2CH2OH , reacts with butanedioic acid, \ceHOOCCH2CH2COOH , to form a polyester.
Which expression represents a repeating unit of the polyester?
A.
[\ce−OCH2CH2CH2OCOCH2CH2CO−]n
B.
[\ce−CH2CH2CH2COOCH2CH2COO−]n
C.
[\ce−NHCH2CH2CH2NHCOCH2CH2CO−]n
D.
[\ce−OCH2CH2CH2OCH2CH2CH2O−]n
E.
[\ce−CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2−]n
Answer and solution
Answer: A
A diol plus a dicarboxylic acid forms ester links, giving −\ceO− (diol residue) −\ceOCO− (diacid residue) −\ceCO− .
▸Question 25
Element X is in Period 3 of the Periodic Table. In its ground state, an atom of X has three unpaired electrons, and it reacts with chlorine to form a chloride with the formula \ceXCl5 .
Which row of the table correctly describes the elements adjacent to X in the Periodic Table?
| | element immediately above X | element immediately below X | element immediately to the left of X | element immediately to the right of X | | :--- | :--- | :--- | :--- | :--- | | A | exists as diatomic molecules containing a triple bond | has a larger atomic radius than X | forms an oxide with a giant covalent structure | has a higher first ionisation energy than X | | B | can expand its octet to form a pentachloride | has a larger atomic radius than X | contains one more proton in its nucleus than X | has a lower first ionisation energy than X | | C | exists as diatomic molecules containing a triple bond | has a larger atomic radius than X | forms an oxide with a giant covalent structure | has a lower first ionisation energy than X | | D | has a lower first ionisation energy than X | contains fewer occupied electron shells than X | forms an oxide with a giant covalent structure | has a higher first ionisation energy than X | | E | exists as diatomic molecules containing a triple bond | has a higher first ionisation energy than X | contains one more proton in its nucleus than X | has a lower first ionisation energy than X |
A.
element immediately above X : exists as diatomic molecules containing a triple bond; element immediately below X : has a larger atomic radius than X ; element immediately to the left of X : forms an oxide with a giant covalent structure; element immediately to the right of X : has a higher first ionisation energy than X
B.
element immediately above X : can expand its octet to form a pentachloride; element immediately below X : has a larger atomic radius than X ; element immediately to the left of X : contains one more proton in its nucleus than X ; element immediately to the right of X : has a lower first ionisation energy than X
C.
element immediately above X : exists as diatomic molecules containing a triple bond; element immediately below X : has a larger atomic radius than X ; element immediately to the left of X : forms an oxide with a giant covalent structure; element immediately to the right of X : has a lower first ionisation energy than X
D.
element immediately above X : has a lower first ionisation energy than X ; element immediately below X : contains fewer occupied electron shells than X ; element immediately to the left of X : forms an oxide with a giant covalent structure; element immediately to the right of X : has a higher first ionisation energy than X
E.
element immediately above X : exists as diatomic molecules containing a triple bond; element immediately below X : has a higher first ionisation energy than X ; element immediately to the left of X : contains one more proton in its nucleus than X ; element immediately to the right of X : has a lower first ionisation energy than X
Answer and solution
Answer: C
1. **Identify Element X :** - Element X is in Period 3 with 3 unpaired electrons in its ground state: configuration is [\ceNe]3s23p3 , which corresponds to phosphorus ( \ceP , Group 15). - Phosphorus forms \cePCl5 by expanding its octet using available 3d orbitals.
2. **Element immediately above X (Nitrogen, \ceN ):** - Exists as diatomic \ceN2 with a strong triple bond ( \ceN≡N ). - Being in Period 2, it cannot expand its octet to form \ceNCl5 .
3. **Element immediately below X (Arsenic, \ceAs ):** - Located in Period 4, it has an extra principal energy level ( n=4 ), which increases shielding and gives it a larger atomic radius than phosphorus.
4. **Element immediately to the left of X (Silicon, \ceSi ):** - Silicon is in Group 14 and forms silicon dioxide ( \ceSiO2 ), which has a giant covalent (macromolecular) lattice.
5. **Element immediately to the right of X (Sulfur, \ceS ):** - Sulfur ( [\ceNe]3s23p4 ) has a pair of electrons in one of its 3p orbitals. - Spin-pair repulsion between these electrons makes the first electron easier to remove than from the stable half-filled 3p3 subshell of phosphorus. Hence, sulfur has a lower first ionisation energy than phosphorus.
Therefore, row C correctly describes all four adjacent elements.
▸Question 26
The solubility of solid X in water is shown. A saturated solution is prepared using 50 g of water at 60∘C and is then cooled to 20∘C . Assume no water evaporates.
What mass of X crystallises?
<div class="md-table-wrap"><table class="md-table"><thead><tr><th>temperature / ∘C </th><th>solubility of X / g per 100 g water</th></tr></thead><tbody><tr><td>20</td><td>30</td></tr><tr><td>60</td><td>80</td></tr></tbody></table></div>
A.
10 g
B.
15 g
C.
20 g
D.
25 g
E.
40 g
Answer and solution
Answer: D
At 60∘C , 50 g water dissolves 40 g X. At 20∘C it can retain 15 g , so 25 g crystallises.
▸Question 27
The mass spectrum of an element \ceX is shown in the graph below.
A 0.100 mol sample of element \ceX reacts completely with 0.075 mol of \ceO2(g) to form a single oxide.
Naturally occurring oxygen consists of three isotopes with mass numbers 16, 17, and 18.
Using this information, what is the difference between the maximum possible and the minimum possible relative formula mass of this oxide?
A.
6
B.
8
C.
10
D.
12
E.
14
F.
16
G.
22
Answer and solution
Answer: E
1. Determine the empirical formula of the oxide: - Amount of \ceX=0.100 mol . - Amount of \ceO2=0.075 mol⟹amount of \ceO atoms=2×0.075=0.150 mol . - Mole ratio of \ceX:\ceO=0.100:0.150=2:3 . - Therefore, the formula of the oxide is \ceX2O3 .
2. Identify the lightest and heaviest isotopes: - From the mass spectrum of \ceX , the isotopes present are m/z=50,52,53,54 . - Lightest isotope of \ceX=50 - Heaviest isotope of \ceX=54 - From the given oxygen isotopes ( 16,17,18 ): - Lightest isotope of \ceO=16 - Heaviest isotope of \ceO=18 3. Calculate the minimum and maximum relative formula masses of \ceX2O3 : - Minimum mass = 2×50+3×16=100+48=148 - Maximum mass = 2×54+3×18=108+54=162 4. Calculate the difference: Difference=162−148=14 Alternatively: ΔM=2(54−50)+3(18−16)=2(4)+3(2)=8+6=14