Four metals are labelled Q, R, S, and T. The following observations are made regarding their chemical properties and extraction methods:
1. Q and R are extracted by the electrolysis of their molten compounds, whereas S and T are extracted by heating their oxides with carbon. 2. S reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid to release a gas, but T does not react. 3. When metal Q is added to an aqueous solution of a salt of R, no reaction occurs.
Which of the following shows the metals arranged in order of decreasing reactivity (most reactive first)?
A.
Q>R>S>T
B.
R>Q>S>T
C.
R>Q>T>S
D.
S>T>R>Q
E.
T>S>Q>R
Answer and solution
Answer: B
First, compare the groups based on extraction methods. Metals extracted by electrolysis (Q and R) are more reactive than carbon. Metals extracted by reduction with carbon (S and T) are less reactive than carbon. Therefore, the group (Q, R) is more reactive than the group (S, T).
Second, compare S and T based on the reaction with acid. S reacts with dilute acid (placing it above hydrogen in the reactivity series), while T does not (placing it below hydrogen). Therefore, S>T .
Third, compare Q and R using the displacement observation. A metal can only displace a less reactive metal from a solution of its salt. Since adding Q to a salt of R results in no reaction, Q cannot displace R. This implies that Q is less reactive than R. Therefore, R>Q .
Combining these deductions gives the overall order: R>Q>S>T .
▸Question 2
Crude oil is separated into fractions using a fractionating column. The boiling point ranges for three of these fractions are given.
| Fraction | Boiling point range / °C | | :--- | :--- | | Petrol | 40 – 200 | | Kerosene | 180 – 250 | | Diesel | 250 – 350 |
Based on this information, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Diesel is collected at a higher temperature and lower down the fractionating column than petrol. 2. The intermolecular forces between molecules in the kerosene fraction are, on average, stronger than those in the petrol fraction. 3. The average number of carbon atoms per molecule is smaller in the diesel fraction than in the petrol fraction.
A.
none of them
B.
1 only
C.
2 only
D.
3 only
E.
1 and 2 only
F.
1 and 3 only
G.
2 and 3 only
H.
1, 2 and 3
Answer and solution
Answer: E
We evaluate each statement based on the principles of fractional distillation and intermolecular forces.
* Statement 1: The boiling point range for diesel (250 – 350 °C) is higher than for petrol (40 – 200 °C). In a fractionating column, there is a temperature gradient, with it being hottest at the bottom and coolest at the top. Vapours rise and condense at different levels (trays) corresponding to their boiling points. Substances with higher boiling points, like diesel, condense at higher temperatures, which are found lower down the column. Therefore, statement 1 is correct.
* Statement 2: The boiling point range for kerosene (180 – 250 °C) is higher than for petrol (40 – 200 °C). Boiling involves overcoming the intermolecular forces between molecules. A higher boiling point means more energy is required to separate the molecules, which implies stronger intermolecular forces. Therefore, the intermolecular forces in kerosene are, on average, stronger than in petrol. Statement 2 is correct.
* Statement 3: The boiling point of alkanes (the main components of these fractions) increases with the length of the carbon chain. Longer chains have more electrons and a larger surface area, leading to stronger temporary dipole-dipole interactions (van der Waals forces). Since diesel has a much higher boiling point range than petrol, it must be composed of, on average, larger molecules with more carbon atoms. The statement claims the opposite. Therefore, statement 3 is incorrect.
Since only statements 1 and 2 are correct, the correct option is E.
▸Question 3
Consider the following three gaseous ions: \ce18O2−,\ce20Ne+,\ce23Na+ Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1 All three ions have the electron configuration 2,8
2 \ce18O2− and \ce20Ne+ contain the same number of neutrons
3 The neutron-to-proton ratio in \ce18O2− is greater than that in \ce23Na+
A.
none of them
B.
1 only
C.
2 only
D.
3 only
E.
1 and 2 only
F.
1 and 3 only
G.
2 and 3 only
H.
1, 2 and 3
Answer and solution
Answer: G
We determine the number of protons ( p ), neutrons ( n ), and electrons ( e ) for each species using their atomic numbers ( \ceO : Z=8 , \ceNe : Z=10 , \ceNa : Z=11 ):
- For \ce18O2− : - p=8 - n=18−8=10 - e=8−(−2)=10 - Electron configuration: 2,8 - Neutron-to-proton ratio: 810=1.25 - For \ce20Ne+ : - p=10 - n=20−10=10 - e=10−(+1)=9 - Electron configuration: 2,7
- For \ce23Na+ : - p=11 - n=23−11=12 - e=11−(+1)=10 - Electron configuration: 2,8 - Neutron-to-proton ratio: 1112≈1.09 Evaluating the statements: 1. Incorrect:\ce20Ne+ has 9 electrons with configuration 2,7, not 2,8. 2. Correct: Both \ce18O2− and \ce20Ne+ have 18−8=10 and 20−10=10 neutrons, respectively. 3. Correct: The neutron-to-proton ratio in \ce18O2− is 1.25 , which is greater than that in \ce23Na+ ( 1.09 ).
Thus, statements 2 and 3 only are correct.
▸Question 4
A reversible reaction producing a gaseous product was investigated in a closed vessel. The table below shows the percentage yield of the product at equilibrium and the time taken to reach equilibrium under different experimental conditions:
Which of the following equations could represent this reaction?
A.
\ceN2(g)+3H2(g)<=>2NH3(g)ΔH=−92 kJ mol−1
B.
\ce2SO3(g)<=>2SO2(g)+O2(g)ΔH=+198 kJ mol−1
C.
\ceH2(g)+I2(g)<=>2HI(g)ΔH=−9 kJ mol−1
D.
\ce3O2(g)<=>2O3(g)ΔH=+285 kJ mol−1
E.
\ce2O3(g)<=>3O2(g)ΔH=−285 kJ mol−1
F.
\ceCO(g)+H2O(g)<=>CO2(g)+H2(g)ΔH=−41 kJ mol−1
Answer and solution
Answer: A
1. Effect of Temperature (Experiments 1 and 2): Increasing the temperature from 400 K to 500 K at constant pressure decreases the equilibrium yield from 35% to 18% . By Le Chatelier's principle, an increase in temperature shifts the equilibrium in the endothermic direction. Because the forward yield decreases, the forward reaction must be exothermic ( ΔH<0 ). This eliminates options B and D.
2. Effect of Pressure (Experiments 1 and 3): Increasing the pressure from 100 kPa to 200 kPa at constant temperature increases the equilibrium yield from 35% to 52% . By Le Chatelier's principle, an increase in pressure shifts the equilibrium towards the side with fewer moles of gas. Thus, the product side must have fewer gaseous moles than the reactant side ( ngas, products<ngas, reactants ). - In A: 4 mol gas→2 mol gas ( 2<4 ), which matches. - In C and F: 2 mol gas→2 mol gas ( Δngas=0 ), so pressure change would not affect the yield. - In E: 2 mol gas→3 mol gas , so pressure increase would decrease the yield.
3. Effect of Catalyst (Experiments 1 and 4): Adding a catalyst reduces the time to reach equilibrium ( 45 min→12 min ) without altering the equilibrium yield ( 35% ), which is consistent with the standard action of a catalyst.
Therefore, the only reaction consistent with all observations is A.
▸Question 5
The reaction profile for the reaction between magnesium and excess dilute hydrochloric acid is shown below: \ceMg(s)+2HCl(aq)−>MgCl2(aq)+H2(g) A sample of magnesium is added to an insulated container containing 150 g of dilute hydrochloric acid. Only 75% of the energy released by the reaction is absorbed by the solution, with the remainder transferred to the surroundings.
What mass of magnesium is required to increase the temperature of the solution from 18.0∘C to 43.0∘C ?
(Assume that the specific heat capacity of the solution is 4.0 J g−1∘C−1 and Ar(\ceMg)=24.0 .)
A.
1.35 g
B.
1.80 g
C.
2.40 g
D.
3.20 g
E.
4.80 g
F.
6.00 g
Answer and solution
Answer: C
1. Calculate the energy absorbed by the solution: ΔT=43.0∘C−18.0∘C=25.0∘Cq=mcΔT=150 g×4.0 J g−1∘C−1×25.0∘C=15,000 J=15.0 kJ 2. Determine the total energy that must be released by the reaction: Efficiency=75%=0.75Ereleased=0.7515.0 kJ=20.0 kJ 3. Extract the enthalpy change from the reaction profile: ΔH=Eproducts−Ereactants=100 kJ mol−1−300 kJ mol−1=−200 kJ mol−1 Thus, 1 mol of \ceMg releases 200 kJ of energy.
4. Calculate the moles and mass of magnesium needed: n(\ceMg)=200 kJ mol−120.0 kJ=0.100 molmass of \ceMg=0.100 mol×24.0 g mol−1=2.40 g
▸Question 6
An element M forms an ionic oxide with the formula \ceM2O3 .
Which row in the table gives the correct chemical formulae for the sulfate, phosphate, and nitride of M ?
| | Sulfate of M | Phosphate of M | Nitride of M | | :--- | :--- | :--- | :--- | | A | \ceMSO4 | \ceM3(PO4)2 | \ceMN | | B | \ceMSO4 | \ceMPO4 | \ceM(NO3)3 | | C | \ceM(SO4)3 | \ceMPO4 | \ceMN | | D | \ceM(SO4)3 | \ceM3(PO4)3 | \ceM3N | | E | \ceM2(SO4)3 | \ceMPO4 | \ceMN | | F | \ceM2(SO4)3 | \ceMPO4 | \ceM3N | | G | \ceM2(SO4)3 | \ceM3(PO4)2 | \ceMN | | H | \ceM2(SO4)3 | \ceM3(PO4)2 | \ceM(NO3)3 |
A.
\ceMSO4 , \ceM3(PO4)2 , \ceMN
B.
\ceMSO4 , \ceMPO4 , \ceM(NO3)3
C.
\ceM(SO4)3 , \ceMPO4 , \ceMN
D.
\ceM(SO4)3 , \ceM3(PO4)3 , \ceM3N
E.
\ceM2(SO4)3 , \ceMPO4 , \ceMN
F.
\ceM2(SO4)3 , \ceMPO4 , \ceM3N
G.
\ceM2(SO4)3 , \ceM3(PO4)2 , \ceMN
H.
\ceM2(SO4)3 , \ceM3(PO4)2 , \ceM(NO3)3
Answer and solution
Answer: E
1. **Determine the charge on M :** In the oxide \ceM2O3 , the oxide ion is \ceO2− . Three oxide ions have a total charge of 3×(−2)=−6 . Therefore, the two M ions must have a total charge of +6 , meaning each M ion is \ceM3+ .
2. **Sulfate of M :** The sulfate ion is \ceSO42− . To balance the +3 charge of \ceM3+ and the −2 charge of \ceSO42− , the lowest common multiple is 6. We require two \ceM3+ ions and three \ceSO42− ions, giving the formula \ceM2(SO4)3 .
3. **Phosphate of M :** The phosphate ion is \cePO43− . Combining \ceM3+ and \cePO43− gives a 1:1 ratio, resulting in the empirical formula \ceMPO4 .
4. **Nitride of M :** The nitride ion is \ceN3− (distinguished from the nitrate ion, \ceNO3− ). Combining \ceM3+ and \ceN3− gives a 1:1 ratio, resulting in the empirical formula \ceMN .
Therefore, row E is the correct row.
▸Question 7
Three aqueous solutions at 25∘C are mixed together:
- 100 cm3 of 0.050 mol dm−3\ceH2SO4(aq) - 150 cm3 of 0.100 mol dm−3\ceHNO3(aq) - 250 cm3 of 0.040 mol dm−3\ceBa(OH)2(aq) Assume that \ceH2SO4 , \ceHNO3 , and \ceBa(OH)2 are completely dissociated in solution, and that volumes are additive.
What is the pH of the resulting mixture at 25∘C ?
A.
1.0
B.
2.0
C.
3.0
D.
7.0
E.
11.0
F.
12.0
G.
13.0
Answer and solution
Answer: B
1. Calculate total moles of \ceH+ supplied by the acids: - From \ceH2SO4 : n(\ceH2SO4)=0.100 dm3×0.050 mol dm−3=0.0050 mol . Since \ceH2SO4 is diprotic, n(\ceH+)\ceH2SO4=2×0.0050=0.0100 mol . - From \ceHNO3 : n(\ceHNO3)=0.150 dm3×0.100 mol dm−3=0.0150 mol of \ceH+ .
Total n(\ceH+)=0.0100+0.0150=0.0250 mol .
2. Calculate total moles of \ceOH− supplied by the base: - n(\ceBa(OH)2)=0.250 dm3×0.040 mol dm−3=0.0100 mol . - Since each formula unit of \ceBa(OH)2 provides 2 OH- ions, n(\ceOH−)=2×0.0100=0.0200 mol .
3. Determine unreacted excess ions: - Neutralization reaction: \ceH++OH−−>H2O . - \ceOH− is limiting, so excess n(\ceH+)=0.0250−0.0200=0.0050 mol .
4. Calculate final concentration and pH: - Total volume Vtotal=100+150+250=500 cm3=0.500 dm3 . - [\ceH+]=0.500 dm30.0050 mol=0.010 mol dm−3=1.0×10−2 mol dm−3 . - pH=−log10[\ceH+]=−log10(1.0×10−2)=2.0 .
Hence, the correct option is B.
▸Question 8
The gas-phase reaction between methane and ammonia produces hydrogen cyanide and hydrogen according to the following equation: \ceCH4(g)+NH3(g)−>HCN(g)+3H2(g) The enthalpy change for this reaction is ΔH=+255kJmol−1 .
| Bond | Mean bond enthalpy / kJmol−1 | | :--- | :---: | | \ceC−H | 415 | | \ceN−H | 390 | | \ceH−H | 435 |
Using the data provided, what is the calculated bond enthalpy of the \ceC≡N triple bond in \ceHCN ?
A.
600kJmol−1
B.
855kJmol−1
C.
1110kJmol−1
D.
1270kJmol−1
E.
1365kJmol−1
F.
1725kJmol−1
Answer and solution
Answer: B
To find the bond enthalpy of \ceC≡N , we use: ΔH=∑(bond enthalpies of bonds broken)−∑(bond enthalpies of bonds formed)Bonds broken (reactants): - 4×\ceC−H bonds in \ceCH4=4×415=1660kJmol−1 - 3×\ceN−H bonds in \ceNH3=3×390=1170kJmol−1Total energy absorbed=1660+1170=2830kJmol−1Bonds formed (products): - 1×\ceC−H bond in \ceHCN=415kJmol−1 - 1×\ceC≡N bond in \ceHCN=E(\ceC≡N) - 3×\ceH−H bonds in 3\ceH2=3×435=1305kJmol−1Total energy released=415+1305+E(\ceC≡N)=1720+E(\ceC≡N)Setting up the equation:+255=2830−[1720+E(\ceC≡N)]+255=1110−E(\ceC≡N)E(\ceC≡N)=1110−255=855kJmol−1 Therefore, the bond enthalpy of the \ceC≡N bond is 855kJmol−1 .
▸Question 9
An aqueous solution contains an equimolar mixture of \ceCuSO4 , \ceNaCl , and \ceKNO3 .
The solution is electrolysed using inert graphite electrodes.
Which row in the table correctly shows the initial half-equation occurring at the cathode (negative electrode) and at the anode (positive electrode)?
| | Cathode half-equation | Anode half-equation | | :--- | :--- | :--- | | A | \ceCu2+(aq)+2e−−>Cu(s) | 2\ceCl−(aq)−>Cl2(g)+2e− | | B | \ceCu2+(aq)+2e−−>Cu(s) | 4\ceOH−(aq)−>O2(g)+2H2O(l)+4e− | | C | 2\ceH+(aq)+2e−−>H2(g) | 2\ceCl−(aq)−>Cl2(g)+2e− | | D | 2\ceH+(aq)+2e−−>H2(g) | 4\ceOH−(aq)−>O2(g)+2H2O(l)+4e− | | E | \ceNa+(aq)+e−−>Na(s) | 2\ceCl−(aq)−>Cl2(g)+2e− | | F | \ceNa+(aq)+e−−>Na(s) | 4\ceOH−(aq)−>O2(g)+2H2O(l)+4e− | | G | \ceK+(aq)+e−−>K(s) | 2\ceCl−(aq)−>Cl2(g)+2e− | | H | \ceK+(aq)+e−−>K(s) | 4\ceOH−(aq)−>O2(g)+2H2O(l)+4e− |
1. Cathode (reduction): - Cations present in the aqueous solution: \ceCu2+ , \ceNa+ , \ceK+ , and \ceH+ (from the dissociation of water). - In the reactivity series, potassium and sodium are far more reactive than hydrogen, so \ceK+ and \ceNa+ remain in solution. - Copper is less reactive than hydrogen ( E∘(\ceCu2+/Cu)=+0.34 V>E∘(\ceH+/H2)=0.00 V ), so \ceCu2+ ions are reduced preferentially at the cathode: \ceCu2+(aq)+2e−−>Cu(s) 2. Anode (oxidation): - Anions present in the aqueous solution: \ceSO42− , \ceNO3− , \ceCl− , and \ceOH− (from water). - Halide ions ( \ceCl− ) are discharged in preference to hydroxide ions and oxyanions (sulfate and nitrate do not oxidise under these conditions). - Therefore, \ceCl− ions are oxidised at the anode: 2\ceCl−(aq)−>Cl2(g)+2e− Combining both conclusions gives row A.
▸Question 10
Magnesium reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid according to the following equation: \ceMg(s)+2HCl(aq)−>MgCl2(aq)+H2(g) In Experiment 1, 0.48 g of magnesium ribbon was added to 100 cm3 of 0.20 mol dm−3\ceHCl(aq) . Curve X on the graph shows how the volume of hydrogen gas produced changed with time at a constant temperature.
In Experiment 2, 0.36 g of identical magnesium ribbon was added to 50 cm3 of 1.0 mol dm−3\ceHCl(aq) at the same temperature and pressure.
Which curve (A–F) best represents how the volume of hydrogen gas produced changes with time in Experiment 2?
(Relative atomic mass, Ar : \ceMg=24.0 )
A.
A
B.
B
C.
C
D.
D
E.
E
F.
F
Answer and solution
Answer: C
1. Determine the limiting reactant and volume of gas in Experiment 1: - Moles of \ceMg=24.0 g mol−10.48 g=0.020 mol . - Moles of \ceHCl=0.100 dm3×0.20 mol dm−3=0.020 mol . - From the stoichiometry \ceMg+2HCl−>MgCl2+H2 , 0.020 mol of \ceHCl reacts with only 0.010 mol of \ceMg . - Therefore, \ceHCl is limiting in Experiment 1, and the amount of \ceH2 produced is 21×0.020 mol=0.010 mol . - On the graph, curve X reaches a plateau at 2 grid units, corresponding to 0.010 mol of \ceH2 .
2. Determine the limiting reactant and volume of gas in Experiment 2: - Moles of \ceMg=24.0 g mol−10.36 g=0.015 mol . - Moles of \ceHCl=0.050 dm3×1.0 mol dm−3=0.050 mol . - To react completely, 0.015 mol of \ceMg requires 2×0.015=0.030 mol of \ceHCl . - Since 0.050 mol of \ceHCl is present, \ceHCl is in excess and \ceMg is the limiting reactant. - The amount of \ceH2 produced is equal to the moles of \ceMg reacted: n(\ceH2)=0.015 mol . - The ratio of total volume produced in Experiment 2 to Experiment 1 is 0.0100.015=1.5 . - Therefore, the plateau height must be 1.5×2=3 grid units.
3. Determine the initial rate of reaction: - The initial rate depends on the concentration of \ceHCl(aq) . - In Experiment 2, [\ceHCl]=1.0 mol dm−3 , which is five times greater than in Experiment 1 ( 0.20 mol dm−3 ). - Hence, the initial rate is greater, meaning the curve has a steeper initial gradient than curve X.
Curve C has a steeper initial gradient than X and plateaus at 3 grid units.
▸Question 11
The structure of propan-2-ol is shown below.
Propan-2-ol can be synthesised by the gas-phase hydrogenation of propanone according to the following equation: \ceCH3COCH3(g)+H2(g)−>CH3CH(OH)CH3(g)ΔH=−54 kJ mol−1 Mean bond energies: - \ceC−C=+347 kJ mol−1 - \ceC−H=+413 kJ mol−1 - \ceC−O=+358 kJ mol−1 - \ceO−H=+464 kJ mol−1 - \ceH−H=+436 kJ mol−1 What is the mean bond energy of the \ceC=O bond in propanone?
A.
281 kJ mol−1
B.
332 kJ mol−1
C.
745 kJ mol−1
D.
853 kJ mol−1
E.
1181 kJ mol−1
Answer and solution
Answer: C
To find the bond energy of the \ceC=O bond, we use the relationship: ΔH=∑(bond energies of bonds broken)−∑(bond energies of bonds formed) Bonds broken: - In propanone ( \ceCH3COCH3 ): 6×(\ceC−H) , 2×(\ceC−C) , 1×(\ceC=O) - In \ceH2 : 1×(\ceH−H)Total broken=6(413)+2(347)+436+E(\ceC=O)=2478+694+436+E(\ceC=O)=3608+E(\ceC=O) Bonds formed: - In propan-2-ol ( \ceCH3CH(OH)CH3 ): 7×(\ceC−H) , 2×(\ceC−C) , 1×(\ceC−O) , 1×(\ceO−H)Total formed=7(413)+2(347)+358+464=2891+694+358+464=4407 kJ mol−1 Alternatively, cancelling bonds unchanged on both sides ( 6×\ceC−H and 2×\ceC−C ): Net bonds broken=E(\ceC=O)+E(\ceH−H)=E(\ceC=O)+436Net bonds formed=E(\ceC−H)+E(\ceC−O)+E(\ceO−H)=413+358+464=1235 Setting up the equation: ΔH=[E(\ceC=O)+436]−1235=−54E(\ceC=O)−799=−54E(\ceC=O)=799−54=745 kJ mol−1
▸Question 12
A power station burns a fuel containing a small amount of sulfur.
Which pollutant-effect pair is most directly associated with the sulfur impurity?
A.
carbon monoxide - reduced oxygen transport in blood
B.
carbon dioxide - ozone depletion
C.
sulfur dioxide - acidification of lakes and soils
D.
nitrogen - global warming
E.
methane - acid rain
Answer and solution
Answer: C
Sulfur in the fuel can form \ceSO2 on combustion; \ceSO2 contributes to acid rain and environmental acidification.
▸Question 13
Water vapour condenses on a cold surface.
Which description is correct?
A.
The particles become farther apart and energy is absorbed from the surroundings.
B.
The particles become closer together and energy is transferred to the surroundings.
C.
The particles become fixed in a regular lattice immediately and energy is absorbed.
D.
The particles change into different molecules and energy is released.
E.
The particles remain equally spaced but move faster.
Answer and solution
Answer: B
Condensation changes gas to liquid: particles become closer and less free to move, and energy is released to the surroundings.
▸Question 14
Two-dimensional thin-layer chromatography (2D-TLC) is used to separate a mixture of two amino acids, X and Y.
A sample of the mixture is spotted onto the origin near one corner of a square TLC plate.
1. The plate is placed in Solvent 1. The solvent front travels 12.0 cm vertically from the baseline. The plate is then removed and dried. 2. The plate is rotated by 90∘ and placed in Solvent 2. The new solvent front travels 10.0 cm perpendicular to the first direction.
The retention factors ( Rf ) for the two amino acids in each solvent are shown in the table below:
| Amino acid | Rf in Solvent 1 | Rf in Solvent 2 | | :--- | :--- | :--- | | X | 0.65 | 0.20 | | Y | 0.40 | 0.60 |
What is the straight-line distance between the centres of the spots for amino acid X and amino acid Y after the second run?
A.
1.0 cm
B.
3.0 cm
C.
4.0 cm
D.
5.0 cm
E.
7.0 cm
F.
10.0 cm
G.
15.6 cm
Answer and solution
Answer: D
1. In the first run (Solvent 1), the solvent front moves 12.0 cm : - Distance moved by X along the first axis: yX=0.65×12.0 cm=7.80 cm - Distance moved by Y along the first axis: yY=0.40×12.0 cm=4.80 cm - Separation along the first axis: Δy=∣7.80−4.80∣=3.00 cm 2. In the second run (Solvent 2), the solvent front moves 10.0 cm perpendicular to the first direction: - Distance moved by X along the second axis: xX=0.20×10.0 cm=2.00 cm - Distance moved by Y along the second axis: xY=0.60×10.0 cm=6.00 cm - Separation along the second axis: Δx=∣6.00−2.00∣=4.00 cm 3. Since the two developments occur in perpendicular directions, the straight-line distance d between the spots is given by Pythagoras' theorem: d=(Δx)2+(Δy)2=(4.00 cm)2+(3.00 cm)2=16.00+9.00=25.00=5.0 cm Hence, the correct option is D.
▸Question 15
The skeletal formula of the terpene myrcene is shown below:
What is the minimum volume of hydrogen gas, measured at room temperature and pressure (rtp), required to completely hydrogenate 0.34 cm3 of liquid myrcene to form the fully saturated alkane 2,6-dimethyloctane?
( Mr value: myrcene = 136. Density of myrcene = 0.80 g cm−3 . Molar volume of a gas at rtp = 24.0 dm3 mol−1 )
A.
0.048 cm3
B.
0.096 cm3
C.
0.144 cm3
D.
0.288 cm3
E.
0.048 dm3
F.
0.096 dm3
G.
0.144 dm3
H.
0.288 dm3
Answer and solution
Answer: G
1. Calculate the mass of the myrcene sample: mass=density×volume=0.80 g cm−3×0.34 cm3=0.272 g 2. Calculate the amount in moles of myrcene: n(myrcene)=136 g mol−10.272 g=0.0020 mol 3. Determine the number of \ceC=C double bonds from the skeletal formula: Myrcene contains 3 \ceC=C double bonds. Each double bond requires 1 mole of \ceH2 for complete addition/hydrogenation, so the mole ratio is 1:3 . n(\ceH2)=3×0.0020 mol=0.0060 mol 4. Calculate the volume of hydrogen gas required at rtp: V(\ceH2)=n(\ceH2)×Vm=0.0060 mol×24.0 dm3 mol−1=0.144 dm3 Thus, the correct option is G.
▸Question 16
The reaction between magnesium and hydrochloric acid was investigated under different conditions at a constant temperature: \ceMg(s)+2HCl(aq)−>MgCl2(aq)+H2(g) Which experiment (A–E) in the following table will produce 0.40 g of hydrogen gas in the shortest time?
First, calculate the amounts of reactants required to produce 0.40 g of \ceH2 : n(\ceH2)=2.0 g mol−10.40 g=0.20 mol From the stoichiometry of \ceMg(s)+2HCl(aq)−>MgCl2(aq)+H2(g) : - Minimum \ceMg needed: 0.20 mol×24 g mol−1=4.8 g - Minimum \ceHCl needed: 2×0.20 mol=0.40 mol Now determine the maximum mass of \ceH2 each experiment can produce: - A: n(\ceMg)=242.4=0.10 mol ; n(\ceHCl)=0.250×2.0=0.50 mol . \ceMg is limiting ⟹0.10 mol \ceH2=0.20 g (insufficient). - B: n(\ceMg)=244.8=0.20 mol ; n(\ceHCl)=0.150×2.0=0.30 mol . \ceHCl is limiting ⟹0.15 mol \ceH2=0.30 g (insufficient). - C: n(\ceMg)=244.8=0.20 mol ; n(\ceHCl)=0.100×4.0=0.40 mol⟹0.20 mol \ceH2=0.40 g . - D: n(\ceMg)=243.6=0.15 mol ; n(\ceHCl)=0.300×1.5=0.45 mol . \ceMg is limiting ⟹0.15 mol \ceH2=0.30 g (insufficient). - E: n(\ceMg)=244.8=0.20 mol ; n(\ceHCl)=0.200×2.0=0.40 mol⟹0.20 mol \ceH2=0.40 g .
Only experiments C and E can produce the required 0.40 g of \ceH2 . Both use 4.8 g of magnesium ribbon, but experiment C uses a higher concentration of hydrochloric acid ( 4.0 mol dm−3 vs 2.0 mol dm−3 ), which increases the collision frequency and gives a higher rate of reaction. Therefore, C will produce 0.40 g of \ceH2 in the shortest time.
▸Question 17
Four chemical equations involving sulfur compounds are shown below:
1 \ceSO2+2H2S−>3S+2H2O 2 \ceSO3+H2SO4−>H2S2O7 3 \ce3S+6NaOH−>2Na2S+Na2SO3+3H2O 4 \ceNa2S2O3+2HCl−>2NaCl+S+SO2+H2O Which two equations represent disproportionation reactions?
A.
1 and 2
B.
1 and 3
C.
1 and 4
D.
2 and 3
E.
2 and 4
F.
3 and 4
Answer and solution
Answer: F
A disproportionation reaction is a redox reaction in which an element in a single substance with a single initial oxidation state is simultaneously oxidised and reduced to form products in two different oxidation states.
- In equation 1, sulfur in \ceSO2 has an oxidation state of +4 and in \ceH2S it has an oxidation state of −2 . Both react to form elemental sulfur with an oxidation state of 0 . Because two different oxidation states converge to a single intermediate oxidation state, this is a comproportionation reaction, not disproportionation.
- In equation 2, sulfur has an oxidation state of +6 in \ceSO3 , \ceH2SO4 , and \ceH2S2O7 . No element changes oxidation state, so this is a non-redox addition reaction.
- In equation 3, elemental sulfur has an initial oxidation state of 0 . In \ceNa2S , sulfur is reduced to −2 , while in \ceNa2SO3 , sulfur is oxidised to +4 . Since the same element undergoes both oxidation and reduction, this is a disproportionation reaction.
- In equation 4, sulfur in thiosulfate ( \ceNa2S2O3 ) has an average oxidation state of +2 . In the products, it is reduced to elemental sulfur ( 0 ) and oxidised to sulfur dioxide ( \ceSO2 , where sulfur is +4 ). Thus, this is also a disproportionation reaction.
Therefore, equations 3 and 4 represent disproportionation reactions.
▸Question 18
A gas-phase reaction proceeds via a two-step mechanism: Step 1: \ceW(g)−>X(g)Step 2: \ceX(g)−>Y(g) The overall reaction is: \ceW(g)−>Y(g) The following thermodynamic and kinetic values are given: - Enthalpy change for Step 1: ΔH1=+30 kJ mol−1 - Activation energy for the forward reaction of Step 1: Ea,1=+80 kJ mol−1 - Overall enthalpy change for \ceW(g)−>Y(g) : ΔHoverall=−40 kJ mol−1 - Activation energy for the forward reaction of Step 2: Ea,2=+50 kJ mol−1 What is the enthalpy change for Step 2 ( ΔH2 ) and the activation energy for the reverse reaction of Step 2 ( \ceY(g)−>X(g) )?
| | Enthalpy change for Step 2 / kJ mol−1 | Activation energy for reverse of Step 2 / kJ mol−1 | |:---:|:---:|:---:| | A | −70 | +20 | | B | −70 | +80 | | C | −70 | +120 | | D | −10 | +40 | | E | −10 | +60 | | F | +70 | +20 | | G | +70 | +120 | | H | +10 | +60 |
1. **Determine the enthalpy change for Step 2 ( ΔH2 ):** According to Hess's Law: ΔHoverall=ΔH1+ΔH2−40 kJ mol−1=+30 kJ mol−1+ΔH2ΔH2=−40−30=−70 kJ mol−1 2. **Determine the activation energy for the reverse of Step 2 ( Ea,−2 ):** For any elementary step, the activation energy of the reverse reaction is related to the forward activation energy and the reaction enthalpy by: Ea, rev=Ea, fwd−ΔH For Step 2: Ea,−2=Ea,2−ΔH2=+50 kJ mol−1−(−70 kJ mol−1)=+120 kJ mol−1 Alternatively, considering relative energy levels where E(\ceW)=0 kJ mol−1 : - E(\ceX)=+30 kJ mol−1 - The transition state for Step 2 is E(TS2)=E(\ceX)+Ea,2=30+50=+80 kJ mol−1 - E(\ceY)=E(\ceW)+ΔHoverall=−40 kJ mol−1 - For the reverse reaction \ceY−>X , the energy barrier to reach TS2 from \ceY is: Ea,−2=E(TS2)−E(\ceY)=+80−(−40)=+120 kJ mol−1 Therefore, the correct row is C.
▸Question 19
The graph shows the melting points of the eight consecutive elements across Period 3 of the Periodic Table (atomic numbers Z=11 to 18 ).
Which of the following statements correctly explain(s) features of this graph?
1 The sharp decrease in melting point from Z=14 to Z=15 occurs because the structure changes from a giant covalent network to a simple molecular structure.
2 The melting point of the element with Z=16 is higher than that of the element with Z=15 because \ceS8 molecules have more electrons than \ceP4 molecules, resulting in stronger London dispersion forces.
3 The element with Z=18 has the lowest melting point because it exists as diatomic molecules with fewer electrons per molecule than \ceCl2 .
A.
none of them
B.
1 only
C.
2 only
D.
3 only
E.
1 and 2 only
F.
1 and 3 only
G.
2 and 3 only
H.
1, 2 and 3
Answer and solution
Answer: E
Statement 1 is correct: Element Z=14 (silicon) has a giant covalent macromolecular structure with many strong covalent bonds that require large amounts of energy to break. Element Z=15 (phosphorus) exists as simple molecular \ceP4 , where only weak intermolecular forces (London dispersion forces) need to be overcome to melt the solid.
Statement 2 is correct: Element Z=16 (sulfur) exists as \ceS8 molecules containing 128 electrons, while element Z=15 (phosphorus) exists as \ceP4 molecules containing 60 electrons. The greater number of electrons in \ceS8 gives rise to stronger London dispersion forces between molecules, leading to a higher melting point.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Element Z=18 (argon) is a noble gas and exists as individual monatomic atoms (single \ceAr atoms), not diatomic molecules.
Therefore, statements 1 and 2 only are correct.
▸Question 20
Aqueous solutions of two different monoprotic acids, Acid X and Acid Y, are prepared. Both solutions have a concentration of 0.10\cemoldm−3 .
The pH of the solution of Acid X is 1.0 , and the pH of the solution of Acid Y is 3.0 .
Which of the following statements is correct?
A.
Equal volumes of Acid X and Acid Y require the same volume of 0.10\cemoldm−3\ceNaOH solution for complete neutralisation.
B.
The solution of Acid Y has a higher electrical conductivity than the solution of Acid X.
C.
If 10\cecm3 of the solution of Acid Y is diluted to 100\cecm3 with distilled water, the pH of the resulting solution will be 4.0 .
D.
The concentration of the anion \ceX− is approximately equal to the concentration of the anion \ceY− .
E.
When reacted with an excess of magnesium ribbon, the initial rate of hydrogen gas production is greater for Acid Y than for Acid X.
Answer and solution
Answer: A
1. Identify Acid Strengths: * For Acid X, the concentration is 0.10\cemoldm−3 and the pH is 1.0 . Since pH=−log10(\ce[H+]) , the concentration of hydrogen ions is \ce[H+]=10−1.0=0.10\cemoldm−3 . As \ce[H+] equals the initial acid concentration, Acid X must be a strong acid, meaning it is fully dissociated. * For Acid Y, the concentration is also 0.10\cemoldm−3 , but the pH is 3.0 . This means \ce[H+]=10−3.0=0.0010\cemoldm−3 . Since the \ce[H+] is much lower than the initial acid concentration, Acid Y is only partially dissociated and is therefore a weak acid.
2. Evaluate the Options: * A: This statement compares the volume of \ceNaOH needed for neutralisation. Neutralisation is a stoichiometric process that depends on the total number of moles of acid. Since both acids are monoprotic and have the same concentration and volume, they contain the same number of moles of acid. Therefore, they will react with, and be neutralised by, the same number of moles (and thus the same volume) of a standard \ceNaOH solution. This statement is correct. * B: Electrical conductivity depends on the concentration of mobile ions. Acid X (strong) is fully ionised, giving a total ion concentration of approximately 0.10(\ceH+)+0.10(\ceX−)=0.20\cemoldm−3 . Acid Y (weak) is only partially ionised, with a total ion concentration of approximately 0.0010(\ceH+)+0.0010(\ceY−)=0.0020\cemoldm−3 . Acid X has a much higher ion concentration and therefore higher conductivity. This statement is incorrect. * C: Diluting a weak acid by a factor of 10 increases the pH, but by less than 1 unit. This is because the equilibrium \ceHY<=>H++Y− shifts to the right upon dilution (Le Châtelier's principle), increasing the percentage of acid molecules that dissociate. This statement is incorrect. * D: For Acid X, \ce[X−]=0.10\cemoldm−3 . For Acid Y, \ce[Y−]≈\ce[H+]=0.0010\cemoldm−3 . These concentrations are not approximately equal. This statement is incorrect. * E: The initial rate of reaction with a metal depends on the concentration of \ceH+ ions. Since \ce[H+] in Acid X ( 0.10\ceM ) is 100 times greater than in Acid Y ( 0.0010\ceM ), the initial rate of reaction will be much faster for Acid X. This statement is incorrect.
▸Question 21
A neutral atom of element \ceX has electrons in three occupied electron shells, and its +2 ion has the electron configuration of neon.
Which row of the table correctly compares the elements immediately adjacent to \ceX in the Periodic Table with element \ceX ?
| | element immediately above \ceX | element immediately below \ceX | element immediately to the left of \ceX | element immediately to the right of \ceX | | :--- | :--- | :--- | :--- | :--- | | A | has a higher first ionisation energy than \ceX | reacts more vigorously with cold water than \ceX | its stable cation has a smaller ionic radius than \ceX2+ | has a higher first ionisation energy than \ceX | | B | has a lower first ionisation energy than \ceX | reacts more vigorously with cold water than \ceX | its stable cation has a larger ionic radius than \ceX2+ | has a higher first ionisation energy than \ceX | | C | has a higher first ionisation energy than \ceX | reacts more vigorously with cold water than \ceX | its stable cation has a larger ionic radius than \ceX2+ | has a lower first ionisation energy than \ceX | | D | has a higher first ionisation energy than \ceX | forms a hydroxide that is less soluble in water than that of \ceX | its stable cation has a larger ionic radius than \ceX2+ | has a higher first ionisation energy than \ceX | | E | has a lower first ionisation energy than \ceX | forms a hydroxide that is less soluble in water than that of \ceX | its stable cation has a smaller ionic radius than \ceX2+ | has a lower first ionisation energy than \ceX |
A.
element immediately above \ceX : has a higher first ionisation energy than \ceX ; element immediately below \ceX : reacts more vigorously with cold water than \ceX ; element immediately to the left of \ceX : its stable cation has a smaller ionic radius than \ceX2+ ; element immediately to the right of \ceX : has a higher first ionisation energy than \ceX
B.
element immediately above \ceX : has a lower first ionisation energy than \ceX ; element immediately below \ceX : reacts more vigorously with cold water than \ceX ; element immediately to the left of \ceX : its stable cation has a larger ionic radius than \ceX2+ ; element immediately to the right of \ceX : has a higher first ionisation energy than \ceX
C.
element immediately above \ceX : has a higher first ionisation energy than \ceX ; element immediately below \ceX : reacts more vigorously with cold water than \ceX ; element immediately to the left of \ceX : its stable cation has a larger ionic radius than \ceX2+ ; element immediately to the right of \ceX : has a lower first ionisation energy than \ceX
D.
element immediately above \ceX : has a higher first ionisation energy than \ceX ; element immediately below \ceX : forms a hydroxide that is less soluble in water than that of \ceX ; element immediately to the left of \ceX : its stable cation has a larger ionic radius than \ceX2+ ; element immediately to the right of \ceX : has a higher first ionisation energy than \ceX
E.
element immediately above \ceX : has a lower first ionisation energy than \ceX ; element immediately below \ceX : forms a hydroxide that is less soluble in water than that of \ceX ; element immediately to the left of \ceX : its stable cation has a smaller ionic radius than \ceX2+ ; element immediately to the right of \ceX : has a lower first ionisation energy than \ceX
Answer and solution
Answer: C
1. **Identify element \ceX :** The +2 cation \ceX2+ has the electron configuration of neon ( 10 electrons ). Therefore, a neutral atom of \ceX has 10+2=12 electrons and 12 protons , which corresponds to magnesium ( \ceMg , Group 2, Period 3).
2. **Element immediately above \ceX (Beryllium, \ceBe ):** \ceBe has fewer electron shells and less electron shielding than \ceMg . Its outer 2s electrons are closer to the nucleus and held more strongly, so \ceBe has a higher first ionisation energy than \ceMg .
3. **Element immediately below \ceX (Calcium, \ceCa ): Reactivity of Group 2 metals with water increases down the group due to increased shielding and atomic radius, making the outer electrons easier to lose. Calcium reacts more vigorously with cold water** than magnesium (which reacts extremely slowly with cold water).
4. **Element immediately to the left of \ceX (Sodium, \ceNa ):** The stable cation is \ceNa+ . Both \ceNa+ and \ceMg2+ are isoelectronic with neon ( 10 electrons ). Because \ceNa+ has fewer protons ( 11 ) than \ceMg2+ ( 12 ), its nucleus exerts a weaker pull on the electron cloud, meaning \ceNa+ has a larger ionic radius than \ceMg2+ .
5. **Element immediately to the right of \ceX (Aluminium, \ceAl ):** \ceMg has the configuration [\ceNe]3s2 , while \ceAl has [\ceNe]3s23p1 . The first electron removed from \ceAl comes from the higher-energy 3p subshell, which is shielded by the inner 3s2 electrons. Consequently, \ceAl has a lower first ionisation energy than \ceMg .
Thus, row C correctly describes all four adjacent elements.
▸Question 22
A salt solution gives a green flame. After acidification with dilute nitric acid, aqueous silver nitrate produces a white precipitate.
Which salt is consistent with both observations?
A.
\ceNaCl
B.
\ceKCl
C.
\ceCuCl2
D.
\ceCuBr2
E.
\ceCaCl2
F.
\ceLiBr
Answer and solution
Answer: C
A green flame identifies \ceCu2+ and a white silver halide precipitate identifies chloride, so \ceCuCl2 is consistent.
▸Question 23
Consider the following three balanced chemical equations involving nitrogen-containing compounds: Reaction 1:\ceNH4NO2(s)−>N2(g)+2H2O(l)Reaction 2:\ce3NO2(g)+H2O(l)−>2HNO3(aq)+NO(g)Reaction 3:\ceN2H4(l)+2H2O2(l)−>N2(g)+4H2O(l) Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. In reaction 1, nitrogen is both oxidised and reduced.
2. In reaction 2, nitrogen undergoes disproportionation.
3. In reaction 3, hydrogen peroxide acts as a reducing agent.
A.
none of them
B.
1 only
C.
2 only
D.
3 only
E.
1 and 2 only
F.
1 and 3 only
G.
2 and 3 only
H.
1, 2 and 3
Answer and solution
Answer: E
To evaluate each statement, determine the oxidation state of each element in the reactions:
1. In \ceNH4NO2 , nitrogen is present in two separate polyatomic ions: - In \ceNH4+ , each \ceH is +1 , so N+4(+1)=+1⟹N=−3 . - In \ceNO2− , each \ceO is −2 , so N+2(−2)=−1⟹N=+3 . In the product \ceN2(g) , nitrogen has an oxidation state of 0 . Nitrogen in \ceNH4+ is oxidised ( −3→0 ) and nitrogen in \ceNO2− is reduced ( +3→0 ). Thus, nitrogen is both oxidised and reduced (a comproportionation reaction). Statement 1 is correct.
2. In \ceNO2(g) , nitrogen has an oxidation state of +4 . In the products: - In \ceHNO3 , N=+5 (an increase in oxidation state ⟹ oxidation). - In \ceNO , N=+2 (a decrease in oxidation state ⟹ reduction). Because nitrogen in a single reactant species is simultaneously oxidised and reduced to give two different products, this is a disproportionation reaction. Statement 2 is correct.
3. In \ceH2O2 , oxygen has an oxidation state of −1 . In the product \ceH2O , oxygen has an oxidation state of −2 . Because oxygen undergoes reduction (gain of electrons), \ceH2O2 acts as an oxidising agent, not a reducing agent (hydrazine, \ceN2H4 , is oxidised from −2 to 0 and acts as the reducing agent). Statement 3 is incorrect.
Therefore, only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
▸Question 24
Metal P can be extracted from its oxide by heating the oxide with carbon. Metal Q is extracted by electrolysis of a molten compound. Which statements are consistent with this information?
1. Q is more reactive than P. 2. Formation of Q metal at the cathode is a reduction process. 3. When carbon removes oxygen from the oxide of P, the oxide of P is reduced.
A.
none of them
B.
1 only
C.
2 only
D.
3 only
E.
1 and 2 only
F.
1 and 3 only
G.
2 and 3 only
H.
1, 2 and 3
Answer and solution
Answer: H
All three are consistent with the reactivity/extraction model: highly reactive metals require electrolysis, and metal extraction involves reduction.
▸Question 25
A diamine, \ceH2N(CH2)4NH2 , reacts with a dicarboxylic acid, \ceHOOC(CH2)2COOH , to form a polymer.
Which pair correctly identifies the linkage formed in the polymer and the small molecule eliminated during polymerisation?
A.
−\ceCOO− and \ceH2
B.
−\ceCONH− and \ceH2O
C.
−\ceC=C− and \ceH2O
D.
−\ceCONH− and \ceCO2
E.
−\ceO−O− and \ceH2
Answer and solution
Answer: B
A diamine and dicarboxylic acid form a polyamide with −\ceCONH− links by condensation, eliminating water.
▸Question 26
An oxyanion has the formula \ce[XO4]2− , where \ceX represents an isotope of an element with atomic number z and mass number 2z+6 .
Each oxygen atom present in the ion is the isotope \ce816O .
Which row in the table gives the number of protons, neutrons, and electrons in this \ce[XO4]2− ion?
To determine the number of subatomic particles in \ce[XO4]2− :
1. Protons: - The atom \ceX has atomic number z , contributing z protons. - Each oxygen atom \ce816O has atomic number 8 , contributing 8 protons. - For four oxygen atoms: 4×8=32 protons. - Total protons = z+32 .
2. Neutrons: - For \ceX , number of neutrons = mass number−atomic number=(2z+6)−z=z+6 . - For each \ce816O , number of neutrons = 16−8=8 . - For four oxygen atoms: 4×8=32 neutrons. - Total neutrons = (z+6)+32=z+38 .
3. Electrons: - In a neutral species, the number of electrons equals the total number of protons ( z+32 ). - The ion carries an overall charge of −2 , so it has 2 additional electrons. - Total electrons = (z+32)+2=z+34 .
Therefore, row C is correct.
▸Question 27
The mass spectrum shows the relative abundances of the isotopes of an element.
What is the relative atomic mass ( Ar ) of this element?
A.
56.0
B.
56.2
C.
56.25
D.
56.3
E.
56.5
Answer and solution
Answer: B
To calculate the relative atomic mass ( Ar ), determine the weighted mean of the isotopic masses:
1. Sum the relative abundances: Total abundance=1+6+2+1=10 2. Sum the weighted masses of each isotope: Total mass=(54×1)+(56×6)+(57×2)+(58×1)=54+336+114+58=562 3. Calculate Ar : Ar=10562=56.2 Alternatively, using deviations from a baseline of 56: Ar=56+10(−2×1)+(0×6)+(+1×2)+(+2×1)=56+10−2+2+2=56+0.2=56.2 Hence, the correct option is B.